Gal 4:12a paralleling 1 Cor 11:1

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Gregory Hartzler-Miller
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Joined: May 23rd, 2015, 10:09 pm

Gal 4:12a paralleling 1 Cor 11:1

Post by Gregory Hartzler-Miller »

Would it make sense to parallel Gal 4:12a with 1 Cor 11:1 like this?

Γίνεσθε ὡς ἐγώ
[μιμηταί μου γίνεσθε, καθὼς (κατά ὡς) κἀγὼ (καί ἐγώ) Χριστοῦ]

Given what follows immediately after Gal 4:12a, it might seem dubious:

Γίνεσθε ὡς ἐγώ, ὅτι κἀγὼ ὡς ὑμεῖς...

Unless, when the apostle became as the they were, it was precisely in so doing that he was imitating the faith and love of Christ!

Cf. Gal 5:13-14,
"...serve one another in love. The entire law is fulfilled in a single decree: 'Love your neighbor as yourself.'"

For, perhaps the ἐγώ in the apostle's imperative--Γίνεσθε ὡς ἐγώ--is the transformed ἐγώ announced earlier in the letter.

Gal 2:20 (with τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ Χριστοῦ variant),
ζῶ δὲ οὐκέτι ἐγώ, ζῇ δὲ ἐν ἐμοὶ Χριστός · δὲ νῦν ζῶ ἐν σαρκί, ἐν πίστει ζῶ τῇ τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ Χριστοῦ τοῦ ἀγαπήσαντός με καὶ παραδόντος ἑαυτὸν ὑπὲρ ἐμοῦ.

This is the context for my opening question: Does it make sense to parallel Gal 4:12a with the Greek words of 1 Cor 11:1 broken down like this? Is Cor 11:1 an amplification of Gal 4:12a?

Γίνεσθε ὡς ἐγώ
[μιμηταί μου γίνεσθε, καθὼς (κατά ὡς) κἀγὼ (καί ἐγώ) Χριστοῦ]
Stephen Carlson
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Re: Gal 4:12a paralleling 1 Cor 11:1

Post by Stephen Carlson »

Gregory Hartzler-Miller wrote: December 29th, 2021, 12:46 pm This is the context for my opening question: Does it make sense to parallel Gal 4:12a with the Greek words of 1 Cor 11:1 broken down like this? Is Cor 11:1 an amplification of Gal 4:12a?
I’m not seeing it. Usually when you have ellipsis, the ellipsed material is recoverable from the context. I don’t see imitation in the context, and 1 Cor 11:1 is not in the context. (Plus I wonder whether the Galatians would even have 1 Corinthians at their disposal?)
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
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