Jude 3 τῇ ἅπαξ παραδοθείσῃ

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Jonathan Robie
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Jude 3 τῇ ἅπαξ παραδοθείσῃ

Post by Jonathan Robie »

Jude 3 wrote:πᾶσαν σπουδὴν ποιούμενος γράφειν ὑμῖν
περὶ τῆς κοινῆς ἡμῶν σωτηρίας
ἀνάγκην ἔσχον γράψαι ὑμῖν
παρακαλῶν ἐπαγωνίζεσθαι τῇ ἅπαξ παραδοθείσῃ τοῖς ἁγίοις πίστει.
The phrase τῇ ἅπαξ παραδοθείσῃ is variously interpreted as "delivered once and for all", "was once for all delivered ", "entrusted once for all time".

Where does the "for all" part of this come from? And how is the phrase to be understood?
ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
David Lim
Posts: 901
Joined: June 6th, 2011, 6:55 am

Re: Jude 3 τῇ ἅπαξ παραδοθείσῃ

Post by David Lim »

Jonathan Robie wrote:
Jude 3 wrote:πᾶσαν σπουδὴν ποιούμενος γράφειν ὑμῖν
περὶ τῆς κοινῆς ἡμῶν σωτηρίας
ἀνάγκην ἔσχον γράψαι ὑμῖν
παρακαλῶν ἐπαγωνίζεσθαι τῇ ἅπαξ παραδοθείσῃ τοῖς ἁγίοις πίστει.
The phrase τῇ ἅπαξ παραδοθείσῃ is variously interpreted as "delivered once and for all", "was once for all delivered ", "entrusted once for all time".

Where does the "for all" part of this come from? And how is the phrase to be understood?
[Jude 1] [3] ... exhorting [you] to contend for the faith which was delivered once to the holy [ones]
"απαξ" and "τοις αγιοις" can be taken as adverbs modifying the participle "παραδοθειση". Then "απαξ παραδοθειση τοις αγιοις" functions like an adjective of "τη πιστει". "απαξ" seems to mean essentially "once (at one time)", which implies "only once" in this context.
δαυιδ λιμ
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