"πᾶς ὁ βλέπων γυναῖκα πρὸς τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι αὐτὴν.... "(Mat 5:28 BGT)
What can we make out of the infinitive τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι (in contrast to just using the noun τὸ ἐπιθυμία)? Does the infinitive tell something about the action/doing rather than just a lust or desire (i.e. an inner feeling)? Is the statement saying "everyone who looks at a women toward having sex with her" rather than just a desire or human, physical response?
I got asked from young people time to time about this verse. The question they have is when they see a beautiful woman, they have a "natural response" and whether that is the sin that Jesus was saying here? I told them that was not the case. I don't know if I can say more from the infinitive (verbal noun) or the meaning of the verb ἐπιθυμέω (as compared to the noun ἐπιθυμία maybe).
Matthew 5:28
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Re: Matthew 5:28
I don't think there's anything in the grammar that would answer your question on the interpretation of the verse.
I don't know that there'd be much difference if it had used a prepositional phrase with the noun as opposed to the infinitive of purpose.
I'm afraid you and your young'uns will have to wrestle with it on a theological rather than grammatical level.
I don't know that there'd be much difference if it had used a prepositional phrase with the noun as opposed to the infinitive of purpose.
I'm afraid you and your young'uns will have to wrestle with it on a theological rather than grammatical level.
Re: Matthew 5:28
In my opinion, the infinitive is used in a common grammatical construction together with "προς", so "προς το επιθυμησαι αυτην" means "for the purpose that he might desire her", and has no connotation of "action/doing rather than just a lust or desire". The prepositional phrase which I suppose you mean "προς επιθυμια αυτης" sounds odd. I believe the prepositional phrase is used for stating an objective rather than an immediate purpose. Here however there is an immediate purpose for this "ο βλεπων γυναικα". By the way, there is no such thing as "το επιθυμια" because "επιθυμια" is feminine. The reason why the neuter article is used here is because that grammatical construction with such prepositions always takes the neuter article with the appropriate case ("εν τω" / "εις το" / "προς το" / "δια το" / "μετα το" / "εως του" / "προ του" + acc. + inf.).Dave Soemarko wrote:"πᾶς ὁ βλέπων γυναῖκα πρὸς τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι αὐτὴν.... "(Mat 5:28 BGT)
What can we make out of the infinitive τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι (in contrast to just using the noun τὸ ἐπιθυμία)? Does the infinitive tell something about the action/doing rather than just a lust or desire (i.e. an inner feeling)? Is the statement saying "everyone who looks at a women toward having sex with her" rather than just a desire or human, physical response?
δαυιδ λιμ
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Re: Matthew 5:28
How about from the word meaning of ἐπιθυμέω itself? BDAG list as the first meaning, "to have a strong desire to do or secure someth., desire, long for w. gen. of the thing desired."
Also, Blomberg says in the New American Commentary (on Matthew) that "the grammar of v. 28a leads to two possible translations. Jesus could be speaking of one who 'looks at a woman with the intention of committing adultery' or to one who 'looks at a woman for the purpose of getting her to lust after him.'"
For the first translation, he cited R. G. Bratcher, A Translator’s Guide to the Gospel of Matthew (New York: UBS, 1981), 47. I don't have this Translator's Guide. I wonder if anybody who has it could take a look and see how Bratcher explains it.
For the second translation, he says "The first αὐτήν is more naturally taken as the subject of the infinitive ἐπιθυμῆσαι since this verb usually takes its direct object in the genitive. See K. Haacker, “Der Rechtssatz Jesu zum Thema Ehebruch,” BZ 21 (1977): 113–16; but see BDF 171 (1) for occasional exceptions."
Also, Blomberg says in the New American Commentary (on Matthew) that "the grammar of v. 28a leads to two possible translations. Jesus could be speaking of one who 'looks at a woman with the intention of committing adultery' or to one who 'looks at a woman for the purpose of getting her to lust after him.'"
For the first translation, he cited R. G. Bratcher, A Translator’s Guide to the Gospel of Matthew (New York: UBS, 1981), 47. I don't have this Translator's Guide. I wonder if anybody who has it could take a look and see how Bratcher explains it.
For the second translation, he says "The first αὐτήν is more naturally taken as the subject of the infinitive ἐπιθυμῆσαι since this verb usually takes its direct object in the genitive. See K. Haacker, “Der Rechtssatz Jesu zum Thema Ehebruch,” BZ 21 (1977): 113–16; but see BDF 171 (1) for occasional exceptions."
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Re: Matthew 5:28
David is more or less correct regarding the use of the articular infinitive here with the preposition πρός though it probably denotes result rather than purpose.
Blass, Friedrich, Albert Debrunner and Robert Walter Funk. A Greek Grammar of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature. Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1961.402. Prepositions with the accusative of the articular infinitive. … (5) Πρὸς τό likewise denotes purpose (or result), but it is nowhere frequent: Mt 5:28 ὁ βλέπων γυναῖκα πρὸς τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι ‘with respect to’.—It is not found with ἐπί, κατά, περί.
george
gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth,
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth,
defend the truth till death.
- Jan Hus
gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth,
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth,
defend the truth till death.
- Jan Hus
Re: Matthew 5:28
"επιθυμησαι" does take its direct object in the accusative (Luke 17:22), so I think it is not the grammar but the context that determines which reading is correct and which is not. Furthermore, even if the context of Matt 5:28 was not clear enough, it was written in the LXX, "ουκ επιθυμησεις την γυναικα του πλησιον σου ουκ επιθυμησεις την οικιαν του πλησιον σου ουτε τον αγρον αυτου ουτε τον παιδα αυτου ουτε την παιδισκην αυτου ουτε του βοος αυτου ουτε του υποζυγιου αυτου ουτε παντος κτηνους αυτου ουτε οσα τω πλησιον σου εστιν", which settles the issue if we assume Jesus in Matt 5:28 was referring to it.Dave Soemarko wrote:How about from the word meaning of ἐπιθυμέω itself? BDAG list as the first meaning, "to have a strong desire to do or secure someth., desire, long for w. gen. of the thing desired."
Also, Blomberg says in the New American Commentary (on Matthew) that "the grammar of v. 28a leads to two possible translations. Jesus could be speaking of one who 'looks at a woman with the intention of committing adultery' or to one who 'looks at a woman for the purpose of getting her to lust after him.'"
For the first translation, he cited R. G. Bratcher, A Translator’s Guide to the Gospel of Matthew (New York: UBS, 1981), 47. I don't have this Translator's Guide. I wonder if anybody who has it could take a look and see how Bratcher explains it.
For the second translation, he says "The first αὐτήν is more naturally taken as the subject of the infinitive ἐπιθυμῆσαι since this verb usually takes its direct object in the genitive. See K. Haacker, “Der Rechtssatz Jesu zum Thema Ehebruch,” BZ 21 (1977): 113–16; but see BDF 171 (1) for occasional exceptions."

δαυιδ λιμ
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Re: Matthew 5:28
Thanks, David. I did read that part from LXX before but was just wondering about the grammar in 5:28.