Mark 7:10-13 Anacoluthon?
Posted: May 4th, 2012, 10:47 pm
ΚΑΤΑ ΜΑΡΚΟΝ 7:10-13
Μωϋσῆς γὰρ εἶπεν· τίμα τὸν πατέρα σου καὶ τὴν μητέρα σου, και· ὁ κακολογῶν πατέρα ἢ μητέρα θανάτῳ τελευτάτῳ. ὑμεῖς δὲ λέγετε· ἐὰν εἴπῃ ἄνθρωπος τῷ πατρὶ ἢ τῇ μητρί· κορβᾶν ὅ ἐστιν δῶρον, ὃ ἐὰν ἐξ ἐμοῦ ὠφεληθῇς, οὐκέτι ἀφίετε αὐτὸν οὐδὲν ποιῆσαι τῷ πατρὶ ἢ τῇ μητρί, ἀκυροῦντες τὸν λόγον τοῦ θεοῦ τῇ παραδόσει ὑμῶν ᾗ παρεδώκατε· καὶ παρόμοια τοιαῦτα πολλὰ ποιεῖτε.
ἐὰν εἴπῃ would appear to be introducing the protasis for a 3rd class conditional sentence (If somebody says X, then Y). But this verse seems to be lacking a coherent apodosis. There seems to be a type of apodosis, but the perspective has changed to 2nd person. I suppose that if ὑμεῖς δὲ λέγετε were removed it would make more sense. Jesus appears to be quoting one of their "oral law" traditions - "But you say, 'If a man says to his father...'". But before the "oral law" quote has ended he jumps back to speaking directly to the scribes and Pharisees "YOU do not permit him to do anything..."
James Boyer has mentioned the use of ει without an apodosis: http://faculty.gordon.edu/hu/bi/Ted_Hil ... ls-GTJ.pdf
But I have not been able to find other examples of εαν + subjunctive without an apodosis. Is this just an instance of Mark's anacoluthia? or am I missing something? I should also mention that Matthew seems to have corrected it by keeping a 3rd person apodosis...
ΚΑΤΑ ΜΑΤΘΑΙΟΝ 15:4-6
ὁ γὰρ θεὸς εἶπεν· τίμα τὸν πατέρα καὶ τὴν μητέρα, καί· ὁ κακολογῶν πατέρα ἢ μητέρα θανάτῳ τελευτάτω. ὑμεῖς δὲ λέγετε ὃς ἂν εἴπῃ τῷ πατρὶ ἢ τῇ μητρί· δῶρον ὃ ἐὰν ἐξ ἐμοῦ ὠφεληθῇς οὐ μὴ τιμήσει τὸν πατέρα αὐτοῦ· καὶ ἠκυρώσατε τὸν λόγον τοῦ θεοῦ διὰ τὴν παράδοσιν ὑμῶν.
Μωϋσῆς γὰρ εἶπεν· τίμα τὸν πατέρα σου καὶ τὴν μητέρα σου, και· ὁ κακολογῶν πατέρα ἢ μητέρα θανάτῳ τελευτάτῳ. ὑμεῖς δὲ λέγετε· ἐὰν εἴπῃ ἄνθρωπος τῷ πατρὶ ἢ τῇ μητρί· κορβᾶν ὅ ἐστιν δῶρον, ὃ ἐὰν ἐξ ἐμοῦ ὠφεληθῇς, οὐκέτι ἀφίετε αὐτὸν οὐδὲν ποιῆσαι τῷ πατρὶ ἢ τῇ μητρί, ἀκυροῦντες τὸν λόγον τοῦ θεοῦ τῇ παραδόσει ὑμῶν ᾗ παρεδώκατε· καὶ παρόμοια τοιαῦτα πολλὰ ποιεῖτε.
ἐὰν εἴπῃ would appear to be introducing the protasis for a 3rd class conditional sentence (If somebody says X, then Y). But this verse seems to be lacking a coherent apodosis. There seems to be a type of apodosis, but the perspective has changed to 2nd person. I suppose that if ὑμεῖς δὲ λέγετε were removed it would make more sense. Jesus appears to be quoting one of their "oral law" traditions - "But you say, 'If a man says to his father...'". But before the "oral law" quote has ended he jumps back to speaking directly to the scribes and Pharisees "YOU do not permit him to do anything..."
James Boyer has mentioned the use of ει without an apodosis: http://faculty.gordon.edu/hu/bi/Ted_Hil ... ls-GTJ.pdf
But I have not been able to find other examples of εαν + subjunctive without an apodosis. Is this just an instance of Mark's anacoluthia? or am I missing something? I should also mention that Matthew seems to have corrected it by keeping a 3rd person apodosis...
ΚΑΤΑ ΜΑΤΘΑΙΟΝ 15:4-6
ὁ γὰρ θεὸς εἶπεν· τίμα τὸν πατέρα καὶ τὴν μητέρα, καί· ὁ κακολογῶν πατέρα ἢ μητέρα θανάτῳ τελευτάτω. ὑμεῖς δὲ λέγετε ὃς ἂν εἴπῃ τῷ πατρὶ ἢ τῇ μητρί· δῶρον ὃ ἐὰν ἐξ ἐμοῦ ὠφεληθῇς οὐ μὴ τιμήσει τὸν πατέρα αὐτοῦ· καὶ ἠκυρώσατε τὸν λόγον τοῦ θεοῦ διὰ τὴν παράδοσιν ὑμῶν.