Re. The Relative Pronoun in Rom. 7:19!
Posted: October 18th, 2013, 1:57 pm
List,
I have not posted in years. I will try to follow the procedures. Forgive me if I am rusty at using B-Greek. My question is about Rom. 7:19 and the relative pronoun used twice, ὃ.
οὐ γὰρ ὃ θέλω ποιῶ ἀγαθόν, ἀλλὰ ὃ οὐ θέλω κακὸν τοῦτο πράσσω.
They are I presume, neuter plural accusative because in both cases they are the object of the verb θέλω. I am trying to clearly establish the antecedents in each case, which I also presume are ἀγαθόν & κακὸν respectively, but which seem to appear after the second verb, in each clause, ποιῶ, and πράσσω, respectively. Is this a simple case of accusative of object or attraction of the relative pronoun? The object of θέλω comes before the verb, and the object of ποιῶ, and πράσσω comes after the verb, as referents for the relative pronoun. Is that about right? I know I have not stated it in the technically correct language - forgive me that, please. I cannot conceivably see how the relative pronoun refers to any of the preceding nouns, unless we can argue that it picks up Paul's earlier use of the two synonyms that now appear behind the second verbs. Is this construction unusual in some way?
Like I said I am rusty right now - pastors shouldn't be messing with Greek!
Thanks for your comments and help... remember I am a newbie!
Paul Evans
Wilmington, NC
Holmes, M. W. (2010). The Greek New Testament: SBL Edition (Ro 7:19). Logos Bible Software.
I have not posted in years. I will try to follow the procedures. Forgive me if I am rusty at using B-Greek. My question is about Rom. 7:19 and the relative pronoun used twice, ὃ.
οὐ γὰρ ὃ θέλω ποιῶ ἀγαθόν, ἀλλὰ ὃ οὐ θέλω κακὸν τοῦτο πράσσω.
They are I presume, neuter plural accusative because in both cases they are the object of the verb θέλω. I am trying to clearly establish the antecedents in each case, which I also presume are ἀγαθόν & κακὸν respectively, but which seem to appear after the second verb, in each clause, ποιῶ, and πράσσω, respectively. Is this a simple case of accusative of object or attraction of the relative pronoun? The object of θέλω comes before the verb, and the object of ποιῶ, and πράσσω comes after the verb, as referents for the relative pronoun. Is that about right? I know I have not stated it in the technically correct language - forgive me that, please. I cannot conceivably see how the relative pronoun refers to any of the preceding nouns, unless we can argue that it picks up Paul's earlier use of the two synonyms that now appear behind the second verbs. Is this construction unusual in some way?
Like I said I am rusty right now - pastors shouldn't be messing with Greek!
Thanks for your comments and help... remember I am a newbie!
Paul Evans
Wilmington, NC
Holmes, M. W. (2010). The Greek New Testament: SBL Edition (Ro 7:19). Logos Bible Software.