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John 1:16: how to understand the ὁτι?

Posted: July 12th, 2014, 12:24 am
by moon jung
John 1:15- 16:

1:15 Ιωαννης μαρτυρει περι αυτοῦ και κεκραγεν λεγων,
Οὗτος ῆν ὁν εῖπον, Ὁ οπισω μου ερχομενος εμπροσθεν μου γεγονεν, ὁτι πρῶτοσ μου ῆν.
1:16 ὁτι εκ τοῦ πλαρωματος αυτοῦ ἡμεῖς μαντες ελαβομεν, και Χαριν αντι Χαριτος.

I found that the Majority Text has και instead of ὁτι in 1:16.

It seems that verse 1:16 is not part of the Baptist's speech which begins at 1:15.
ἡμεῖς in 1:16 indicates that the narrator speaks here, identifying him with the audience.

I find it hard to take ὁτι in the sense of "because"; It is not clear in what sense the content of 1:16
is a cause or reason for 1:15. Is there any usage for the "independent" ὁτι clause where the ὁτι
clause does not depend on the main clause, but plays the role of the main clause?

I would think that the Majority Text got the sense of the verse "right" and produced an easier
reading.

Moon Jung

Re: John 1:16: how to understand the ὁτι?

Posted: July 12th, 2014, 3:04 pm
by Jonathan Robie
The SBLGNT punctuation uses parentheses around verse 15:
14 Καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν, καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας· 15 (Ἰωάννης μαρτυρεῖ περὶ αὐτοῦ καὶ κέκραγεν λέγων· Οὗτος ἦν ὃν εἶπον· Ὁ ὀπίσω μου ἐρχόμενος ἔμπροσθέν μου γέγονεν, ὅτι πρῶτός μου ἦν·) 16 ὅτι ἐκ τοῦ πληρώματος αὐτοῦ ἡμεῖς πάντες ἐλάβομεν, καὶ χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος· 17 ὅτι ὁ νόμος διὰ Μωϋσέως ἐδόθη, ἡ χάρις καὶ ἡ ἀλήθεια διὰ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐγένετο.
This implies that the ὅτι in verse 16 continues from the last clause of verse 14:

πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας ... ὅτι ἐκ τοῦ πληρώματος αὐτοῦ ἡμεῖς πάντες ἐλάβομεν

Makes sense to me ...

Re: John 1:16: how to understand the ὁτι?

Posted: July 12th, 2014, 6:42 pm
by Bruce McKinnon
Jonathan Robie wrote:The SBLGNT punctuation uses parentheses around verse 15:
14 Καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν, καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας· 15 (Ἰωάννης μαρτυρεῖ περὶ αὐτοῦ καὶ κέκραγεν λέγων· Οὗτος ἦν ὃν εἶπον· Ὁ ὀπίσω μου ἐρχόμενος ἔμπροσθέν μου γέγονεν, ὅτι πρῶτός μου ἦν·) 16 ὅτι ἐκ τοῦ πληρώματος αὐτοῦ ἡμεῖς πάντες ἐλάβομεν, καὶ χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος· 17 ὅτι ὁ νόμος διὰ Μωϋσέως ἐδόθη, ἡ χάρις καὶ ἡ ἀλήθεια διὰ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐγένετο.
This implies that the ὅτι in verse 16 continues from the last clause of verse 14:

πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας ... ὅτι ἐκ τοῦ πληρώματος αὐτοῦ ἡμεῖς πάντες ἐλάβομεν

Makes sense to me ...
This approach is consistent with the option preferred several decades ago by Barrett in his commentary on John: " ὅτι may continue the words of the Baptist, or, more probably, resume the main thread of the argument which was interrupted by v. 15."

Re: John 1:16: how to understand the ὁτι?

Posted: July 12th, 2014, 10:19 pm
by moon jung
Jonathan Robie wrote:The SBLGNT punctuation uses parentheses around verse 15:
14 Καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν, καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας· 15 (Ἰωάννης μαρτυρεῖ περὶ αὐτοῦ καὶ κέκραγεν λέγων· Οὗτος ἦν ὃν εἶπον· Ὁ ὀπίσω μου ἐρχόμενος ἔμπροσθέν μου γέγονεν, ὅτι πρῶτός μου ἦν·) 16 ὅτι ἐκ τοῦ πληρώματος αὐτοῦ ἡμεῖς πάντες ἐλάβομεν, καὶ χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος· 17 ὅτι ὁ νόμος διὰ Μωϋσέως ἐδόθη, ἡ χάρις καὶ ἡ ἀλήθεια διὰ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐγένετο.
This implies that the ὅτι in verse 16 continues from the last clause of verse 14:

πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας ... ὅτι ἐκ τοῦ πληρώματος αὐτοῦ ἡμεῖς πάντες ἐλάβομεν

Makes sense to me ...
Wow! It makes sense. The fact that the witness of the Baptist begins from John 1:19 makes it reasonable
to think that the statement in John 1:15 about the Baptist is parenthetical. The only problem seems whether
such a parenthetical insertion without any discourse particle (e.g. δε ) is an established method of narration.

Moon Jung