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Word order John 7:42 what does τῆς κώμης... go with?

Posted: May 10th, 2015, 11:37 pm
by Stephen Hughes
John 7:42 wrote:Οὐχὶ ἡ γραφὴ εἶπεν ὅτι ἐκ τοῦ σπέρματος Δαυίδ, καὶ ἀπὸ Βηθλεέμ, τῆς κώμης ὅπου ἦν Δαυίδ, ὁ χριστὸς ἔρχεται;
Which preposition does τῆς κώμης ὅπου ἦν Δαυίδ follow? Is it in apposition to ἐκ τοῦ σπέρματος Δαυίδ with καὶ ἀπὸ Βηθλεέμ being parenthetical, and hence a split (broken) prepositional phrase, or (because Βηθλεέμ is a κώμη) is it after ἀπὸ Βηθλεέμ? The second - being after ἀπὸ Βηθλεέμ - seems more logical.

Is apposition in a prepositional phrase a kind of splitting (without any actual distance)? Is it common?

Re: Word order John 7:42 what does τῆς κώμης... go with?

Posted: May 11th, 2015, 2:47 am
by Stephen Carlson
Attachment ambiguity of prepositional phrases is a notorious problem in interpretation. Usually it's best not to overthink it. Your "more logical" option is best.

Re: Word order John 7:42 what does τῆς κώμης... go with?

Posted: May 11th, 2015, 6:09 am
by Barry Hofstetter
Has anyone ever argued that τῆς κωμῆς is not in apposition with Bethlehem? It's not only logical but the placement of the noun after Bethlehem makes it the natural way to take it.