Mt 26:29 & Mk 14:25 Fitting in the καινὸν with the οἶνον

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Stephen Hughes
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Joined: February 26th, 2013, 7:12 am

Mt 26:29 & Mk 14:25 Fitting in the καινὸν with the οἶνον

Post by Stephen Hughes »

[quote="Matthew 26:29]ὅταν αὐτὸ πίνω μεθ’ ὑμῶν καινὸν ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τοῦ πατρός μου[/quote]
Κατὰ Μάρκον 14:25 wrote:Ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι οὐκέτι οὐ μὴ πίω ἐκ τοῦ γενήματος τῆς ἀμπέλου, ἕως τῆς ἡμέρας ἐκείνης ὅταν αὐτὸ πίνω καινὸν ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τοῦ θεοῦ.
By simply substituting the referent of the pronoun the clause becomes ὅταν τὸ γένημα τῆς ἀμπέλου πίνω καινὸν ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τοῦ θεοῦ. The phrase οἶνος νέος is mentioned in Matthew 9:17 (bis), Matthew 26:29 (after explicating the pronominal referent), Mark 2:22, Mark 2:22 (bis), Mark 14:25 (after explicating the pronominal referent) and Luke 5:38).

Explicating the referent of the pronoun doesn't greatly help me understanding the role of the καινόν though. Perhaps it is "I will drink this, the thing that has been produced from the vine (that we are drinking), and that will be new wine in the Kingdom of God".

Reading that, my knowledge of syntax / word-order is tested to failure (Is that more Victorian era grandiloquence on my part, Carl?), and I am left asking question like;
  • Is it regular usage to put the adjective used with that type of verb into that position?
  • If not, is it emphatic?
  • If not, is it adverbial?
  • Is there interference from another language at work?
Γελᾷ δ' ὁ μωρός, κἄν τι μὴ γέλοιον ᾖ
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
cwconrad
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Re: Mt 26:29 & Mk 14:25 Fitting in the καινὸν with the οἶνον

Post by cwconrad »

Stephen Hughes wrote:
Matthew 26:29 wrote:ὅταν αὐτὸ πίνω μεθ’ ὑμῶν καινὸν ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τοῦ πατρός μου
Κατὰ Μάρκον 14:25 wrote:Ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι οὐκέτι οὐ μὴ πίω ἐκ τοῦ γενήματος τῆς ἀμπέλου, ἕως τῆς ἡμέρας ἐκείνης ὅταν αὐτὸ πίνω καινὸν ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τοῦ θεοῦ.
By simply substituting the referent of the pronoun the clause becomes ὅταν τὸ γένημα τῆς ἀμπέλου πίνω καινὸν ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τοῦ θεοῦ. The phrase οἶνος νέος is mentioned in Matthew 9:17 (bis), Matthew 26:29 (after explicating the pronominal referent), Mark 2:22, Mark 2:22 (bis), Mark 14:25 (after explicating the pronominal referent) and Luke 5:38).

Explicating the referent of the pronoun doesn't greatly help me understanding the role of the καινόν though. Perhaps it is "I will drink this, the thing that has been produced from the vine (that we are drinking), and that will be new wine in the Kingdom of God".

Reading that, my knowledge of syntax / word-order is tested to failure (Is that more Victorian era grandiloquence on my part, Carl?), and I am left asking question like;
  • Is it regular usage to put the adjective used with that type of verb into that position?
  • If not, is it emphatic?
  • If not, is it adverbial?
  • Is there interference from another language at work?
If I understand the question (and I'm not sure that i have), a couple thoughts come to mind. One is the distinction between νέος οἶνος, wine that hasn't aged, and καινὸς οἶνος, wine of a brand-new kind -- wine befitting the creator who will "make all things new":
Rev 21:1 wrote:Καὶ εἶδον οὐρανὸν καινὸν καὶ γῆν καινήν. ὁ γὰρ πρῶτος οὐρανὸς καὶ ἡ πρώτη γῆ ἀπῆλθαν καὶ ἡ θάλασσα οὐκ ἔστιν ἔτι.
The other is that καινὸν in the clause in question is predicative construed with πίνω. That is to say: "The next wine I drink will be the wine that is apprpriate to the καινὴ κτίσις." I think that's what BDF §270 is saying:
if the adjective does not take intermediate position and has no article of its own, it is predicate: Jn 5:36 ἔχω τὴν μαρτυρίαν μείζω = ἡ μαρ. ἣν ἔχω μείζων ἐστίν
οὔτοι ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς πάντα θεοὶ θνητοῖς ὑπέδειξαν,
ἀλλὰ χρόνῳ ζητέοντες ἐφευρίσκουσιν ἄμεινον. (Xenophanes, Fragment 16)

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
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