Matt. 4:16 καθημαι and Matt. 5:1 καθιζω

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PhillipLebsack
Posts: 83
Joined: January 17th, 2018, 10:31 am

Matt. 4:16 καθημαι and Matt. 5:1 καθιζω

Post by PhillipLebsack »

Matt 4:16 ὁ λαὸς ὁ καθήμενος ἐν ⸀σκοτίᾳ ⸂φῶς εἶδεν⸃ μέγα, καὶ τοῖς καθημένοις ἐν χώρᾳ καὶ σκιᾷ θανάτου φῶς ἀνέτειλεν αὐτοῖς.
Matt 5:1 Ἰδὼν δὲ τοὺς ὄχλους ἀνέβη εἰς τὸ ὄρος· καὶ καθίσαντος αὐτοῦ προσῆλθαν αὐτῷ οἱ μαθηταὶ αὐτοῦ·

I suppose this is more of a lexical question.

In Matt 4:16 the verb καθημαι is used, and in 5:1 καθιζω is used. I'm wondering what the nuance is between these words? Generally, and particularly in this context.

My guess is that καθημαι, being middle, is indicating that the subject is performing the action which affects itself. Specifically in this case, it may be suggesting reciprocity, or that it is the people's own fault for "sitting in darkness." The idea being "the people who are sitting themselves in darkness." Whereas in Matt. 5:1 the focus with καθιζω is more on the action, and does not indicate any middle nuance, particularly anything reciprocal. The idea being simply that Jesus sat. "...and sitting down, the disciples came to him."

I'd like to know if this idea is acceptable. Especially the idea that the text is saying (lightly saying, but saying nonetheless) that the people of Galilee were responsible themselves for "sitting" in darkness. Or at least that there is some nuance between the two words καθημαι and καθιζω.
RandallButh
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Joined: May 13th, 2011, 4:01 am

Re: Matt. 4:16 καθημαι and Matt. 5:1 καθιζω

Post by RandallButh »

The difference in the words καθίσαι and καθῆσθαι deals more with lexical suppletion for aspect than conscious manipulation of voice/διάθεσις.

Suppletion is where two words are fused to make one word, like δραμεῖν [perfective] and τρέχειν [continuative/open] make up the word for "run"
and ἐλθεῖν/ἔρχεσθαι/ἐληλυθέναι/ἐλεύσεσθαι for "come".

So with intransitive καθίσαι [perfective] and καθῆσθαι [continuative/open]
how does one say, "be sitting" [imperfective/open imperative]?
κάθου
And how does one say "sit" [perfective imperative]?
κάθισον

Things are a little bit tricky with this ῾word῾ καθίσαι/καθῆσθαι
because we also have an older dialectical word καθεσθῆναι/καθέζεσθαι

You gotta love the Greeks.
PhillipLebsack
Posts: 83
Joined: January 17th, 2018, 10:31 am

Re: Matt. 4:16 καθημαι and Matt. 5:1 καθιζω

Post by PhillipLebsack »

Hi RandallButh.

I took your Living Biblical Hebrew course. It was very good.


Thanks for your response. That is quite helpful. Could you say (to summarize), you're saying that both forms occur simply to offer a complete paradigm of the word, καθημαι being for the aorist, and καθιζω being for the present. And the focus is therefore rather on the aspect difference between the aorist and present?

In the context of these two passages in Matthew, that seems to make better sense. My concern is, how do we know which words are a result of suppletion and which are not? Or can we assume that all words that (appear to) have two different forms like this are really rather a matter of suppletion? Another example being ψεύδω and Ψεύδομαι, though there are several others...
RandallButh
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Joined: May 13th, 2011, 4:01 am

Re: Matt. 4:16 καθημαι and Matt. 5:1 καθιζω

Post by RandallButh »

Phillip,
Thank you for the kind words.

On suppletion and words in any language, it is the overall pattern that shows how things work. Like 'go' and 'went' in English. There is no absolute rule on what will or will not work, and there are situations where there is partial suppletion, when the tendencies are in place but occasional ïrregularities remain.

On καθίσαι and καθῆσθαι, yes, the difference is aspectual, "perfective" vs. "imperfective" to use the standard linguistic terms. ["present" is normally not an aspectual label in linguistics, I would discourage its use for aspect. It is a perfectly fine tense word.] You may have made a typo and written the opposite of your intention. καθίσαι is the perfective [AKA aorist] and καθῆσθαι is the continuative/open-ended [AKA "present", "imperfective"]. The suppletion is not water tight because there also exists καθεσθῆναι [αοριστ, perfective] and καθέζεσθαι [present/continuative/imperfective], all for the general idea of 'sitting'.
Barry Hofstetter
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Joined: May 6th, 2011, 1:48 pm

Re: Matt. 4:16 καθημαι and Matt. 5:1 καθιζω

Post by Barry Hofstetter »

Also, most beginning grammars have a list of the common verbs which use suppletion, such as φέρω and τρέχω. "Growing up" we simply called them irregular verbs, but Randall well explains why that really isn't the case. Part of the fun of learning the language!
N.E. Barry Hofstetter, M.A., Th.M.
Ph.D. Student U of FL
Instructor of Latin
Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
καὶ σὺ τὸ σὸν ποιήσεις κἀγὼ τὸ ἐμόν. ἆρον τὸ σὸν καὶ ὕπαγε.
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