John 21:17 "λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ τρίτον· Σίμων Ἰωάννου, φιλεῖς με (Joh 21:17 BGT)"

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Barry Hofstetter
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Re: John 21:17 "λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ τρίτον· Σίμων Ἰωάννου, φιλεῖς με (Joh 21:17 BGT)"

Post by Barry Hofstetter »

michaelwwww wrote: January 29th, 2022, 12:34 am Dear Barry,

Thank you very much for your reminding and advice and explanation. I know I need to work harder on Greek.

You told me that "the third time " means that Jesus said the same content as before. But it seems to me otherwise when I look into the text and other related text. Could you see my last post about this?


Your any comment is welcome. Thank you for your forbearance with me.
A slight difference in wording does not necessarily mean a difference in content.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter, M.A., Th.M.
Ph.D. Student U of FL
Instructor of Latin
Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
καὶ σὺ τὸ σὸν ποιήσεις κἀγὼ τὸ ἐμόν. ἆρον τὸ σὸν καὶ ὕπαγε.
michaelwwww
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Joined: January 24th, 2022, 4:49 am

Re: John 21:17 "λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ τρίτον· Σίμων Ἰωάννου, φιλεῖς με (Joh 21:17 BGT)"

Post by michaelwwww »

Barry Hofstetter wrote: January 31st, 2022, 12:58 pm
A slight difference in wording does not necessarily mean a difference in content.
Coul you tell me what do you mean by this? Do you mean that "ἀγαπᾷς με πλέον τούτων (Joh 21:15 BGT) " and "ἀγαπᾷς με (Joh 21:16 WHO)" have no difference in content? If so, according to your understanding, how different are two sentences that they are different in content?

Thank you for your help.
Jonathan Robie
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Re: John 21:17 "λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ τρίτον· Σίμων Ἰωάννου, φιλεῖς με (Joh 21:17 BGT)"

Post by Jonathan Robie »

Barry Hofstetter wrote: January 31st, 2022, 12:58 pm A slight difference in wording does not necessarily mean a difference in content.
Barry, do you believe it would be incorrect Greek to say the following in order to describe the three questions Jesus asked?

λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ πρώτον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, ἀγαπᾷς με πλέον τούτων;
λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ δεύτερον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, ἀγαπᾷς με;
λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ τρίτον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, φιλεῖς με;
ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
Barry Hofstetter
Posts: 2159
Joined: May 6th, 2011, 1:48 pm

Re: John 21:17 "λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ τρίτον· Σίμων Ἰωάννου, φιλεῖς με (Joh 21:17 BGT)"

Post by Barry Hofstetter »

Jonathan Robie wrote: February 1st, 2022, 4:43 pm
Barry Hofstetter wrote: January 31st, 2022, 12:58 pm A slight difference in wording does not necessarily mean a difference in content.
Barry, do you believe it would be incorrect Greek to say the following in order to describe the three questions Jesus asked?

λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ πρώτον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, ἀγαπᾷς με πλέον τούτων;
λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ δεύτερον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, ἀγαπᾷς με;
λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ τρίτον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, φιλεῖς με;
No, this is fine.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter, M.A., Th.M.
Ph.D. Student U of FL
Instructor of Latin
Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
καὶ σὺ τὸ σὸν ποιήσεις κἀγὼ τὸ ἐμόν. ἆρον τὸ σὸν καὶ ὕπαγε.
Jonathan Robie
Posts: 4167
Joined: May 5th, 2011, 5:34 pm
Location: Durham, NC
Contact:

Re: John 21:17 "λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ τρίτον· Σίμων Ἰωάννου, φιλεῖς με (Joh 21:17 BGT)"

Post by Jonathan Robie »

Barry Hofstetter wrote: February 2nd, 2022, 5:00 pm
Jonathan Robie wrote: February 1st, 2022, 4:43 pm Barry, do you believe it would be incorrect Greek to say the following in order to describe the three questions Jesus asked?

λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ πρώτον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, ἀγαπᾷς με πλέον τούτων;
λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ δεύτερον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, ἀγαπᾷς με;
λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ τρίτον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, φιλεῖς με;
No, this is fine.
To me, this suggests that ἐλυπήθη ὁ Πέτρος ὅτι εἶπεν αὐτῷ τὸ τρίτον, Φιλεῖς με; could mean that Peter was distressed by the content, not just by the repetition.
ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
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