Punctuation in the Lord's Prayer (Matthew 6:9-13)

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mikeatnip
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Re: Punctuation in the Lord's Prayer (Matthew 6:9-13)

Post by mikeatnip »

Jonathan Robie wrote: July 27th, 2023, 9:42 am I wouldn't want to bake this interpretation into my understanding of what the Greek word means.
Yeah, that could be a recipe for disaster if mixed in to the wrong recipe. ;)
Mike Atnip
May I not debate presumptuously; may I not be silent impudently. May I learn beneficial speech; may I acquire discerning silence. -Ephrem the Syrian
Stephen Carlson
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Re: Punctuation in the Lord's Prayer (Matthew 6:9-13)

Post by Stephen Carlson »

Jonathan Robie wrote: July 22nd, 2023, 6:23 pm Wiktionary tells me that the άνω τελεία is used thus:

1. Separates groups of clauses in a sentence.
2. Separates two parts of a sentence where a κόμμα is thought to be inadequate.

But Πάτερ ἡμῶν ὁ ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς is not a clause, and the whitespace separates these three very parallel lines (which I am putting back together below):
The Wiktionary page describes modern Greek punctuation, but some editions follow Byzantine practice. Actually, (2) is basically fine though inadequate since one would have know what a κόμμα is, and (1) is merely an example of (2). More pertinently, this punctuation mark separates colons (κῶλα), and vocatives can form a colon.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
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Mitch Tulloch
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Re: Punctuation in the Lord's Prayer (Matthew 6:9-13)

Post by Mitch Tulloch »

I think interpretation always has to be a balanced interplay between prototypical meaning(s) of words and their meaning within context (both immediate and larger). But I'll leave off further discussion here as I'm still pretty much a beginner when it comes to the former.
Cheers,
Mitch Tulloch
Jonathan Robie
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Re: Punctuation in the Lord's Prayer (Matthew 6:9-13)

Post by Jonathan Robie »

Stephen Carlson wrote: August 1st, 2023, 12:25 am
Jonathan Robie wrote: July 22nd, 2023, 6:23 pm Wiktionary tells me that the άνω τελεία is used thus:

1. Separates groups of clauses in a sentence.
2. Separates two parts of a sentence where a κόμμα is thought to be inadequate.

But Πάτερ ἡμῶν ὁ ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς is not a clause, and the whitespace separates these three very parallel lines (which I am putting back together below):
The Wiktionary page describes modern Greek punctuation, but some editions follow Byzantine practice. Actually, (2) is basically fine though inadequate since one would have know what a κόμμα is, and (1) is merely an example of (2). More pertinently, this punctuation mark separates colons (κῶλα), and vocatives can form a colon.
Where can I find a useful discussion of this? I really don't know anything about Byzantine Greek punctuation.
ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
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