Daniel LXX OG 10:13
Posted: July 29th, 2015, 4:06 am
Someone here must have access to Ziegler 1954 or Frankel 1999 critical text of Daniel. I looked at the NETS translation of Daniel LXX OG 10:13 and found a reading I could not track down: "one of the holy angels" in NETS appears to be an expression borrowed from 1Enoch 20-21 where ὁ εἷς τῶν ἁγίων ἀγγέλων appears about seventeen times as an epithet various angels for example: Μιχαήλ, ὁ εἷς τῶν ἁγίων ἀγγέλων ὁ ἐπὶ τῶντοῦ λαοῦ ἀγαθῶν τεταγμένος καὶ ἐπὶ τῷ χάῳ.
The 1935 Rahlfs LXX text doesn't show an alternate reading that could be translated one of the holy angels" Rahlfs LXX OG and Theodotion:
Dan. 10:13 LXX-OG καὶ ὁ στρατηγὸς βασιλέως Περσῶν ἀνθειστήκει ἐναντίον μου εἴκοσι καὶ μίαν ἡμέραν, καὶ ἰδοὺ Μιχαηλ εἷς τῶν ἀρχόντων τῶν πρώτων ἐπῆλθε βοηθῆσαί μοι, καὶ αὐτὸν ἐκεῖ κατέλιπον μετὰ τοῦ στρατηγοῦ τοῦ βασιλέως Περσῶν.
Dan. 10:13 Theodotion καὶ ὁ ἄρχων βασιλείας Περσῶν εἱστήκει ἐξ ἐναντίας μου εἴκοσι καὶ μίαν ἡμέραν, καὶ ἰδοὺ Μιχαηλ εἷς τῶν ἀρχόντων τῶν πρώτων ἦλθεν βοηθῆσαί μοι, καὶ αὐτὸν κατέλιπον ἐκεῖ μετὰ τοῦ ἄρχοντος βασιλείας Περσῶν
So my question is, what is the reading behind "one of the holy angels." Why do I want to know this?
In regard to:
1Cor. 2:6 Σοφίαν δὲ λαλοῦμεν ἐν τοῖς τελείοις, σοφίαν δὲ οὐ τοῦ αἰῶνος τούτου οὐδὲ τῶν ἀρχόντων τοῦ αἰῶνος τούτου τῶν καταργουμένων·
1Cor. 2:8 ἣν οὐδεὶς τῶν ἀρχόντων τοῦ αἰῶνος τούτου ἔγνωκεν· εἰ γὰρ ἔγνωσαν, οὐκ ἂν τὸν κύριον τῆς δόξης ἐσταύρωσαν.
G. Fee’s claim that **rulers**: “the plural form does not refer to demonic forces of any kind in any Jewish or Christian writings prior to the second century” (G. Fee, 1Cor NICNT, 1987, p104 n4); The plural form does refer to **angelic beings** in Daniel LXX-OldGreek and Theodotion. So depending on how late one dates the greek text of Daniel LXX-OG or “proto-Theodotion” we might take issue with Fee’s claim assuming we do not choose to do some hair splitting over good/evil angels and “demonic forces.”
The 1935 Rahlfs LXX text doesn't show an alternate reading that could be translated one of the holy angels" Rahlfs LXX OG and Theodotion:
Dan. 10:13 LXX-OG καὶ ὁ στρατηγὸς βασιλέως Περσῶν ἀνθειστήκει ἐναντίον μου εἴκοσι καὶ μίαν ἡμέραν, καὶ ἰδοὺ Μιχαηλ εἷς τῶν ἀρχόντων τῶν πρώτων ἐπῆλθε βοηθῆσαί μοι, καὶ αὐτὸν ἐκεῖ κατέλιπον μετὰ τοῦ στρατηγοῦ τοῦ βασιλέως Περσῶν.
Dan. 10:13 Theodotion καὶ ὁ ἄρχων βασιλείας Περσῶν εἱστήκει ἐξ ἐναντίας μου εἴκοσι καὶ μίαν ἡμέραν, καὶ ἰδοὺ Μιχαηλ εἷς τῶν ἀρχόντων τῶν πρώτων ἦλθεν βοηθῆσαί μοι, καὶ αὐτὸν κατέλιπον ἐκεῖ μετὰ τοῦ ἄρχοντος βασιλείας Περσῶν
So my question is, what is the reading behind "one of the holy angels." Why do I want to know this?
In regard to:
1Cor. 2:6 Σοφίαν δὲ λαλοῦμεν ἐν τοῖς τελείοις, σοφίαν δὲ οὐ τοῦ αἰῶνος τούτου οὐδὲ τῶν ἀρχόντων τοῦ αἰῶνος τούτου τῶν καταργουμένων·
1Cor. 2:8 ἣν οὐδεὶς τῶν ἀρχόντων τοῦ αἰῶνος τούτου ἔγνωκεν· εἰ γὰρ ἔγνωσαν, οὐκ ἂν τὸν κύριον τῆς δόξης ἐσταύρωσαν.
G. Fee’s claim that **rulers**: “the plural form does not refer to demonic forces of any kind in any Jewish or Christian writings prior to the second century” (G. Fee, 1Cor NICNT, 1987, p104 n4); The plural form does refer to **angelic beings** in Daniel LXX-OldGreek and Theodotion. So depending on how late one dates the greek text of Daniel LXX-OG or “proto-Theodotion” we might take issue with Fee’s claim assuming we do not choose to do some hair splitting over good/evil angels and “demonic forces.”