Yeah, that could be a recipe for disaster if mixed in to the wrong recipe.Jonathan Robie wrote: ↑July 27th, 2023, 9:42 am I wouldn't want to bake this interpretation into my understanding of what the Greek word means.
Punctuation in the Lord's Prayer (Matthew 6:9-13)
					Forum rules
Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up. This is not a beginner's forum, competence in Greek is assumed.
	Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up. This is not a beginner's forum, competence in Greek is assumed.
Re: Punctuation in the Lord's Prayer (Matthew 6:9-13)
Mike Atnip
May I not debate presumptuously; may I not be silent impudently. May I learn beneficial speech; may I acquire discerning silence. -Ephrem the Syrian
						May I not debate presumptuously; may I not be silent impudently. May I learn beneficial speech; may I acquire discerning silence. -Ephrem the Syrian
- 
				Stephen Carlson
 - Posts: 3355
 - Joined: May 11th, 2011, 10:51 am
 - Location: Melbourne
 - Contact:
 
Re: Punctuation in the Lord's Prayer (Matthew 6:9-13)
The Wiktionary page describes modern Greek punctuation, but some editions follow Byzantine practice. Actually, (2) is basically fine though inadequate since one would have know what a κόμμα is, and (1) is merely an example of (2). More pertinently, this punctuation mark separates colons (κῶλα), and vocatives can form a colon.Jonathan Robie wrote: ↑July 22nd, 2023, 6:23 pm Wiktionary tells me that the άνω τελεία is used thus:
1. Separates groups of clauses in a sentence.
2. Separates two parts of a sentence where a κόμμα is thought to be inadequate.
But Πάτερ ἡμῶν ὁ ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς is not a clause, and the whitespace separates these three very parallel lines (which I am putting back together below):
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
						Melbourne, Australia
- 
				Mitch Tulloch
 - Posts: 59
 - Joined: November 4th, 2017, 2:52 pm
 - Location: Winnipeg, Canada
 - Contact:
 
Re: Punctuation in the Lord's Prayer (Matthew 6:9-13)
I think interpretation always has to be a balanced interplay between prototypical meaning(s) of words and their meaning within context (both immediate and larger). But I'll leave off further discussion here as I'm still pretty much a beginner when it comes to the former.
			
			
									
									Cheers,
Mitch Tulloch
						Mitch Tulloch
- 
				Jonathan Robie
 - Posts: 4244
 - Joined: May 5th, 2011, 5:34 pm
 - Location: Durham, NC
 - Contact:
 
Re: Punctuation in the Lord's Prayer (Matthew 6:9-13)
Where can I find a useful discussion of this? I really don't know anything about Byzantine Greek punctuation.Stephen Carlson wrote: ↑August 1st, 2023, 12:25 amThe Wiktionary page describes modern Greek punctuation, but some editions follow Byzantine practice. Actually, (2) is basically fine though inadequate since one would have know what a κόμμα is, and (1) is merely an example of (2). More pertinently, this punctuation mark separates colons (κῶλα), and vocatives can form a colon.Jonathan Robie wrote: ↑July 22nd, 2023, 6:23 pm Wiktionary tells me that the άνω τελεία is used thus:
1. Separates groups of clauses in a sentence.
2. Separates two parts of a sentence where a κόμμα is thought to be inadequate.
But Πάτερ ἡμῶν ὁ ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς is not a clause, and the whitespace separates these three very parallel lines (which I am putting back together below):
ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
						http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/