KATEBH and Gen. of Apposition
Dmitriy Reznik
reznik1 at juno.com
Sat Jun 24 10:06:14 EDT 2000
On Sat, 24 Jun 2000 02:59:54 GMT "Mark Wilson" <emory2002 at hotmail.com>
writes:
>
>
> Eph 4:9
>
> TO DE ANEBH TI ESTIN EI MH hOTI KAI KATEBH EIS TO KATWTERA MERH THS
> GHS
>
>
> Once again in my Grammar book (Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics by
> Daniel B.
> Wallace) I have come across something that makes little to no sense
> to me.
>
> In a footnote concerning this verse, he sites W. Hall Harris
> article in
> BSac where Harris lists as an option for this verse a Genitive of
> Apposition, and could indicate that the descent occurred AFTER the
> ascent.
>
> How can a Genitive of Apposition denote a SUBSEQUENT descent in this
> verse?
>
> what does this mean except that subsequently he also descended into
> the
> lower parts of the earth
>
> Would this translation be acceptable?
>
> The final statement Dr. Wallace makes in this footnote has really
> confused
> me. He feels that if this idea of AFTER is correct (which, he says,
> has
> much to commend it), then that would mean the descent is a
> reference to the
> Spirits descent on the day of Pentecost.
>
> Is not the subject of Eph. 4:9 Christ? How could the descent of the
> Spirit
> equate to a descent of Christ? I think that the KAI KATEBH (he ALSO
> descended) would mean that the same one who ascended ALSO descended.
>
> I have got to believe that this final statement of Wallaces
> probably
> crosses over into a theological question. I apologize in advance if
> I have
> inadvertently asked a theological question here. In case he was
> supporting
> this contention based somehow on the grammar of this verse, I
> thought I
> better ask.
Please look at Ps. 62:10 in LXX:
AUTOI DE EIS MATHN EZHTHSAN THN PSUCHN MOU, EISELEUSONTAI EIS TA KATWTATA
THS GHS
To me it look like Paul speak about the same place, namely, Hades.
Regards,
Dmitriy Reznik
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