[B-Greek] 1 Cor 6:16

Doug &Val McEachern applejuice at ozemail.com.au
Wed Mar 10 04:55:44 EST 2004


Greetings to all B_GREEK people, I have question which is likely not welcome for discussion on this list so I hope someone will undertake to address it off list.
My question is why Paul uses SWMA and SARX or SARKA in the same sentence.  Exactly what distinction is meant by 'one body' and 'one flesh'. Certainly the later is God's ideal, whereas the former falls short of God's purpose.
>From the text, is it legitimate to understand that though inferior, the 'one body' becomes a sort of one flesh substitute? 
One flesh by default?  Or is Paul drawing a clear contrast between the two, and saying perhaps that the former becomes a person of the same substance and hence indistinguishable from the prostitute?   In other words effectively a prostitute also?   A sort of backward step of losing his identity instead of  a forward step of creating a new identity.  I guess this is a question of interpretation and so I would be appreciative of any Greek language based help that can be given off list.( or on list if that is possible)

My E-mail address is applejuice at ozemail.com.au  it would be most helpful if the following E-mail address could be inserted in the cc field as well  olszta at comcast.net

Thank you very much in anticipation,

Doug McEachern




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