[B-Greek] Why does the Greek New Testamentsometimes quote from theLXX and not from the proto-MT

John Byron jbyron at ashland.edu
Thu Mar 11 14:10:50 EST 2004


Bart, 

Your concern for the 'quality' of the LXX as opposed to a Hebrew text seems to suggest that a single Hebrew text existed. I am not sure that we can argue that on the basis of the evidence we have. LXX translators were not even consistent in the way they translated various Hebrew words into Greek. Moreover, the LXX is, in many ways, a form of re-written bible which was a common practice (i.e Targum). Apparently, there was not this concern for a 'quality' text in late antiquity as there is in the 21st century. 



John Byron Ph.D.
Ashland Theological Seminary
910 Center St.
Ashland, OH 44805
jbyron at ashland.edu

>>> Bart Torbert <Bart.Torbert at ihsenergy.com> 03/11/04 01:44PM >>>





Dear Barbara,

What you say is very true.  But it does not answer the bigger question of
the "quality" of the LXX vs. Hebrew texts.

Bart Torbert
bart.torbert at ihsenergy.com 




                                                                           
             "Barbara D. Colt                                              
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                                       Re: [B-Greek] Why does the Greek    
                                       New Testament sometimes       quote 
             03/11/2004 11:45          from  theLXX and not from the       
             AM                        proto-MT whe                        
                                                                           
                                                                           
                                                                           
                                                                           
                                                                           
                                                                           






On 11 Mar 2004 at 12:12, Albert Pietersma wrote:

> in fact is a defense of the  Septuagint against its source text circa
> 130 BCE. The tale reflects vividly that certainly by  that time
> Egyptian Greek-speaking Jewry regarded the Septuagint (i.e. the
> Pentateuch) as a  text with an illustrious genealogy which had become
> an independent entity vis-a-vis its  parent.

If the Greeks of the Diaspora were anything like immigrants in the US
today, the third generation would have been for the most part unable
to read the original.  Some of them might have been able to talk
simple family talk with their grandmothers, but not much more.
That's why they needed a Greek translation, and they probably
regarded the Septuagint much as average people in our culture regard
whatever English translation may be used in their church.

  Barbara D. Colt, mailto:babc2 at comcast.net 
St John the Evangelist, San Francisco
>From envy, hatred, and malice and all uncharitableness
Good Lord, deliver us.

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