[B-Greek] Mt 20:26 and Mk 10:43
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Thu Mar 25 06:10:42 EST 2004
At 9:34 AM +0100 3/25/04, Wieland Willker wrote:
>Matthew 20:26 OUC OUTWS ESTAI EN UMIN
> --- Mark 10:43 OUC OUTWS DE ESTIN EN UMIN
>
>ESTIN vs. ESTAI. Is there or could there be a difference in meaning?
I rather doubt it; I think that Matthew's is stylistically better Greek; if
both took this text from an Aramaic oral tradition, then Matthew converted
it into better Greek; if Matthew took it from Mark, he improved it
stylistically, but I don't think there's any difference of intention
between Mk's "That's not the way it is in your case" and Mt's "That's not
the way it should be in your case" (I'm assuming that ESTAI is meant to
have imperatival force, like the future indicatives used in the Greek forms
of the Decalogue).
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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