[B-Greek] Figures of speech/Idioms: weighing their emphasis

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Thu Mar 25 06:34:07 EST 2004


At 12:43 AM -0500 3/25/04, Mont Cessna wrote:
>Dear List,
>
>I have a few questions regarding the impact or weight that figures of
>speech and/or idioms have on a passage.
>
>1) Do figures of speech always add emphasis or call something to our
>attention as EW Bullinger states in his book Figures of Speech Used in
>the Bible?
>2) If they always do then how do we measure or weigh their importance?
>For example does "asyndeton" add as much weight to a passage as
>"polyptoton"?
>3) How do idioms fit in the picture? It appears to me that at times the
>lines between idioms and figures of speech get pretty blurred.

This is a matter that is not really alien to B-Greek discussion but much
broader in scope than can be adequately discussed in this forum. I'm not
sure you'll find a clear consensus of opinion on these questions. I think
there may be some who downplay rhetorical features in the Biblical text,
but insofar as Biblical texts were meant to appeal to the ears and
minds--as all ancient texts more or less are (gospels and letters alike
were intended to be read aloud to assembled groups)--the tricks that make
story-telling and oratory more efficacious as communication of important
information and concepts were part any literature that is more than a
laundry list or inventory.

I think your second question about asyndeton and polyptoton answers itself
fairly readily with a look at 1 Corinthians 13 in the Greek or Isaiah 5:7
in the Hebrew.

Idioms are integral to authentic language of real human beings anywhere; it
behooves readers to be aware of them but a straightforward translation
doesn't necessarily make it obvious that "dogs" in Mk 7:27-28 is intended
to suggest "Gentiles."

Particularly problematic are parables in the teaching of Jesus; it's clear
that he used them deliberately as a teaching device: most people would
suppose, I think, that he did so to drive home or illustrate his gospel
proclamation, but did he use them to instruct "insiders" and confound
"outsiders"? That becomes an important question for readers of the Synoptic
accounts of Jesus' reason for teaching in parables (Mk 4:10-12 and
parallels in Mt and Lk).

If there is to be discussion on these questions, I think it would best
focus upon particular Biblical Greek texts wherein these questions come
into play.
-- 

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/



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