[B-Greek] Walking on Water

Gene Baker ekbaker at essex1.com
Thu Mar 4 17:13:25 EST 2010


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Andrew C. Suttles" <andrew.suttles at gmail.com>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, March 04, 2010 2:45 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Walking on Water


>
> Richard Lindeman wrote (on Thu, 4 Mar 2010 at 13:10 -0600):
>
>> PERIPATWN EPI THS THALASSHS  Mark 6:46
>>
>> I've been having a discussion with a friend who contends that Jesus is
>> walking "by the sea" in the above passage rather than walking "upon the
>> sea".   I see that elsewhere St. Mark uses PARA THN THALASSAN when 
>> referring
>> to Jesus as walking "by the sea" to call the first disciples.  I also 
>> notice
>> also that the disciples of Jesus KATEBHSAN EPI THN THALASSAN in John 
>> 6:16.
>> This seems to me to imply that the disciples went down to the very edge 
>> of
>> the water in order to enter the boat.
>>
>> So then, my question is this...  Just how plausible is "walking by the 
>> sea"
>> in Mark 6:46 ?
>
> It's not, but we didn't need the Greek to find that out did we? Tell your 
> friend
> to stick to good English translations for a while.
>
> Andrew
>
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  Perhaps his friend has been reading Wm. Barclay's comments on John 6:16. 
He claims that Jesus was walking EPI THS QALASSHS, and that it means that 
Jesus was walking on the seashore.  Barclay, Gospel of John, I, p.211, 212.

  Now, this also raises a question of the difference in Barclay's text, 
since he uses the genitive, while the my admittedly obsolete NT uses the 
accusative. I don't see a textual note, so I wonder if the change in case is 
significant, or maybe just a typo on Barclay's part.

  Gene Baker
   Sterling, IL

 




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