[B-Greek] Translating EIS at 1 Thess. 4:15
Hedrick Gary
GaryH at cjfm.org
Sat Mar 6 02:01:41 EST 2010
Some interesting ideas here. But I just checked A GRAMMATICAL ANALYSIS OF THE GREEK NEW TESTAMENT from Editrice Pontificio Instituto Biblico in Rome (1996), hardly a bastion of doctrinaire dispensational rapturism, and they have eis as a temporal usage with the force of "until." A literal rendering of the Greek clause could read like this: "... we the ones living [and] the ones remaining until the arrival of the Lord ...." To try to read more into it than that, it seems to me, looks a bit forced. Maybe thesis pressure?
In classical Greek (Sophocles, for example, among others), parousia could be used in the sense of the first stage of appearance. That is, when an orator made an appearance, the audience's first sight of him was the parousia. Arndt & Gingrich cite this nuance of the term in their lexicon of the GNT (pp. 629-30). This could also be germane to a correct understanding of Paul's meaning in this text.
Gary Hedrick
On Mar 5, 2010, at 10:58 AM, Timothy Lawson wrote:
> To All:
>
> At 1 Thessalonians 4:15 Paul connects the timing of the so called “rapture” to the PAROUSIA. What inferences can be drawn, as regards timing, by Paul’s unique use of the preposition EIS with PAROUSIA?
>
> Should EIS be translated as “to,” “till,” “until” or “up to” and thus convey the idea that the “rapture” event could be expected early in the PAROUSIA or, should it be translated as “for” or “during” the PAROUSIA and leave the timing of the “rapture” indefinite?
>
> Personally, I would be happy for the timing to be definite, but, my reading of pages 358-9 on prepositions in Wallace’s GGBB has disturbed my conclusions. Please bear with me as I explain how I got to the latter conclusion of the above question:
>
> I view the PAROUSIA of Jesus as a durative event. In my view it is shorter than the PAROUSIA described by Israel P. Warren but longer than just the ERXOMAI of Jesus with power and great glory. The PAROUSIA would seem to be a “state”; whether of shorter or longer duration; rather than an “achievement” or “semelfactive” event.
>
> In my study of the PAROUSIA and the events connected with it, I note that EIS is uniquely used with PAROUSIA at 1Thess. 4:15.
>
> Now, as far as I can determine, only dependent verbal participles (circumstantial or adverbial) are grammatically subordinated to their controlling verbs (usually the main verb of the clause).
>
> At 1 Thess. 4:15 hOI PERILEIPOMENOI is most likely an independent substantival participle and as such is not grammatically subordinated to the main verb of the sentence. It could also be a nominative absolute participle but this seems less likely.
>
> Therefore, in the clause “hOI PERILEIPOMENOI EIS THN PAROUSIAN TOU KURIOU,” EIS would not be grammatically subordinated to the main verb of the sentence, but rather to the participle.
>
> Could the participle PERILEPOMENOI at 1 Thessalonians 4:15 be viewed as “stative” and if so, would it then, override the transitive force of the preposition EIS.
>
> On how to identify a “stative” verb Wallace on pg. 412 of GGBB states: “The key is simple: The stative occurs either with the equative verb or one that in translation uses am + a predicate adjective.” [italics mine]
>
> So, if his observation that one could identify a Greek “stative” verb by its ability to be translated using “am” + a predicate adjective, then the following English translation would seem to allow PERILEIPOMENOI to be “stative.”:
>
> …we the living who are surviving [for the presence of the Lord…]
>
> I believe that "surviving" is in this instance a predicate adjective.
>
> In this instance, EIS might then be better reflected by the preposition “for” rather than “to.”
>
> Also, on page 369 of GGBB under heading A.) Basic Uses of EIS at usage # 8 Wallace indicates EIS could be used in place of EN with its various nuances.
>
> I.P. Warren translates EN TH PAROUSIA as “during” the PAROUSIA. This translation of EN is also allowed for in BDAG and Wallace. So I say all of the above to again ask this:
>
> If it is shown that at 1 Thess. 4:15, EIS is sandwiched between a "stative" governing verb and possibly even a stative prepositional object; which really would not necessarily influence the preposition; should it then, be translated as “for” or “during” the PAROUSIA and leave the timing of the “rapture” less definite than might be allowed by the possible ramifications of the conventional translation using to/till/until/up to and viewing PAROUSIA as an "acheivement" (coming) rather than a "state"?
>
> T. Scott Lawson
>
>
>
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