[B-Greek] Mark 1:24

Carl Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Wed Mar 10 12:04:17 EST 2010


Forwarded for: Ron Snider <sarasotapt at comcast.net>
Date: March 10, 2010 11:52:06 AM EST
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Mark 1:24


First, I have a question as to whether or not there is any means by which one can search the archives for a passage to see if it has already been addressed on the list? If so, that would be a great benefit, as one could browse the archives before posting.

My question concerns the syntax of the demonic response to Jesus in Mark 1:24. I trust the unicode generated by Bibleworks 8 is acceptable.

λέγων· τί ἡμῖν καὶ σοί, Ἰησοῦ Ναζαρηνέ; ἦλθες ἀπολέσαι ἡμᾶς; οἶδά σε τίς εἶ, ὁ ἅγιος τοῦ θεοῦ.
[LEGWN· TI hHMIN KAI SOI, IHSOU NAZARHNE; HLQES APOLESAI hHMAS; OIDA SE TIS EI, hO hAGIOS TOU QEOU.]

It recognized that the first question is an idiom for disassociation, that is the two parties don't necessarily want to be involved. The next verb is the aorist of ERCHOMAI, which some take as a statement rather than a question. What would be the implications of it being a statement as opposed to a question. The next statement is OIDA SE (I know you), does it end there, or is the TIS EI to be construed with the statement of knowledge (slight redundancy), or does it introduce a new question? Who are you, the Holy One of God? ie. Is this who you are claiming to be? What is the significance of the two titles Jesus of Nazareth, and the Holy One of God? It seems the demon is emphasizing the human Jesus from that backwater Nazareth. But why the admission or question about the Holy One of God, which is used only 3X in the NT. Mk. 1:24; Lk. 4:34, and Jn. 6:69? It would seem more likely that the demon would question His messiahship rather than proclaim it. However, if he is simply proclaiming it, what is the significance.

If some of this is beyond the parameters of the list, please respond privately.

Any insight is appreciated,

Regards to all,

Ron Snider


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