[B-Greek] "EQELOQRHSKIAi" (Col. 2:23)
yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net
yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net
Thu Mar 11 08:11:13 EST 2010
> 1) Should it not be EQELOQRHSKEIAi, or are both forms correct?
All uses in TLG are spelled with EI, which would be the Attic spelling of a noun formed on a verb with infinitive -EUEIN or EW
> 2) As this appears to be a 'hapax legomenon' in the Greek New Testament, are there any extra-New Testament examples that throw light on the meaning and usage of this word?
All usages are post-NT, Christian and dependent upon Paul's koinage. No hits in Duke papyri database or inscriptions (Christian or otherwise). Seems like it was used, particularly, as a slur against Judaism (especially in Eusebius).
The Suda Lexicon gives
Ἐθελοθρησκεῖ:> ἰδίῳ θελήματι σέβει τὸ δοκοῦν.
Yancy Smith, PhD
yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net
Y.W.Smith at tcu.edu
yancy at wbtc.com
5636 Wedgworth Road
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817-361-7565
On Mar 11, 2010, at 5:49 AM, A. J. Birch wrote:
> "hATINA ESTIN LOGON MEN ECONTA SOFIAS EN EQELOQRHSKIAi KAI TAPEINOFROSUNHi [KAI] AFEIDIAi SWMATOS, OUK EN TIMHi TINI PROS PLHSMONHN THS SARKOS" ('Colossians' 2:23).
>
> I have two questions about EQELOQRHSKIAi, the first minor, the second more important:
>
> 1) Should it not be EQELOQRHSKEIAi, or are both forms correct?
>
> 2) As this appears to be a 'hapax legomenon' in the Greek New Testament, are there any extra-New Testament examples that throw light on the meaning and usage of this word?
>
> Thankyou,
>
> Andrew J. Birch
> Palma de Mallorca, Spain
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