[B-Greek] A Perfect Imperfect (Was Hebrews 1:6 and 2:5
Richard Lindeman
oblchurch at msn.com
Fri Mar 12 18:01:57 EST 2010
George:
I retract my question. I finally managed to take out the Hebrew and
actually look at the text there.
Your explanation makes perfect sense.
Thanks!
Rich Lindeman
--------------------------------------------------
From: "Richard Lindeman" <oblchurch at msn.com>
Sent: Friday, March 12, 2010 8:05 AM
To: "George F Somsel" <gfsomsel at yahoo.com>; "Carl Conrad"
<cwconrad2 at mac.com>
Cc: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] A Perfect Imperfect (Was Hebrews 1:6 and 2:5
> Thanks George. Your insights are helpful.
> However, in discussions like this, parsing the dialogue on B-Greek has
> often been more challenging for me than parsing the actual Koine Greek.
> But I really do try my best.
>
> So then, since as it appears that you are pretty confident in your
> assertions, let me see if I understand you absolutely correctly. There is
> a predicate apposition being expressed in the Hebrew that would be
> inappropriate for the Koine. Therefore, in an attempt to be faithful to
> the Hebrew phrasing, the LXX translator has inserted a temporal clause
> with HMHN. And the end result is a wooden Greek expression that has left
> our imaginations going a bit wild. Is that right?
>
> And if I have that part right, then just one more question: Given his
> options, do you think that the LXX translator's choice was a good one? (My
> Hebrew is so rusty that the gate absolutely won't open on my end)
>
> Rich Lindeman
>
>
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list