[B-Greek] Mark 2:9-10 EUKOPOTERON
Tony Pope
borikayaama_tekiri at sil.org
Tue Mar 23 17:50:03 EDT 2010
Rhetorical questions in the gospels starting with "Which?" or "What person?" very frequently seem to
require a negative answer such as "Neither" or "No-one". This is typical of the parables that start
with that sort of rhetorical question, as pointed out by Jeremias (The Parables of Jesus, p. 103),
and of many other rhetorical questions.
For a closer parallel, compare in the NA text Matt 23.17
τίς γὰρ μείζων ἐστίν, ὁ χρυσὸς ἢ ὁ ναὸς ὁ ἁγιάσας τὸν χρυσόν;
TIS GAR MEIZWN ESTIN, hO CRUSOS H hO NAOS hO hAGIASAS TON CRUSON;
"Which is greater, the gold or the temple that sanctified it?"
This has equally been interpreted as meaning that the temple is more dangerous to swear by than the
gold, because the temple can sanctify the gold but not vice versa. But since both end up equally
sanctified, it seems to me the meaning is neither is more critical than the other.
So it may be this use of the rhetorical question is a "pragmatic" convention, and I would go with
those who say the meaning in Mark 2.9 is "Neither," in other words, the two options are equally
inappropriate for an ordinary mortal to say.
Tony Pope
------------
On Mar 23, 2010, at 7:04 AM, yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net wrote:
What insight can grammar, semantics and "context" give to help understand the meaning of the
question in Mark 2:9
τί ἐστιν εὐκοπώτερον, εἰπεῖν τῷ παραλυτικῷ· ἀφίενταί σου αἱ ἁμαρτίαι, ἢ εἰπεῖν· ἔγειρε καὶ ἆρον τὸν
κράβαττόν σου καὶ περιπάτει;
TI ESTIN EUKOPWTERON, EIPEIN TWi PARALYTIKWi: AFIENTAI SOU hAI AMARTIAI, H EIPEIN: EGEIRE KAI ARON
TON KRABATTON SOU KAI PERIPATEI?
More specifically, how is one to understand the relative difficulty (DUSKOLIA?) or easiness
(EUMAREIA?) of the two utterances? Most of the commentaries published after the 1950's I have
surveyed take EUKOPOTERON as referring to evidence, susceptibility of proof. That is, it was
"easier" for Jesus to say "Your sins are forgiven" because it could not be demonstrated either way.
This was also Chrysostom's view in his several references to this passage. Several 19th century
commentaries take the view that neither statement is "easier" for Jesus to say, I suppose on
theological grounds. I am not interested in the theological potential of this statement, rather, how
is makes sense in context. It seems that vital information is missing in 9-10.
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