[B-Greek] PNEUMA hAGION as a proper name
Mark Lightman
lightmanmark at yahoo.com
Wed May 12 09:37:30 EDT 2010
Blue asked (in reference to why Luke has TO PNEUMA TO AGION
in Acts 10:47 but PNEUMA AGION elsewhere with LAMBANW)
<Could it possibly be Luke wants to emphasize that the Holy Spirit
that just fell on the Gentiles was one and the same Spirit that fell
on the Jews at Pentecost, (possibly because of some prejudice),
and that is why he uses an articular construction...>
Hi, Blue,
Yes, I think this is exactly right. The article here is almost used as the demonstrative
as it is in Homer "[the Gentliles] received this self same Holy Ghost just like
we did."
On the other hand, setting aside the use with LAMBANW and just looking at the term in general,
just glancing at my concordance, it appears that Luke sometimes
uses the article with Holy Spirit and sometimes does not, and I cannot spot a general
pattern. Can you? Can anyone? I imagine this has been discussed before.
Mark L
FWSFOROS MARKOS
________________________________
From: Blue Meeksbay <bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Tue, May 11, 2010 3:32:15 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] PNEUMA hAGION as a proper name
ACTS 8:15 hOITINES KATABANTES PROSHUXANTO PERI AUTWN hOPWS LABWSIN PNEUMA hAGION•
ACTS 8:17 TOTE EPETIQESAN TAS CEIRAS EP᾽ AUTOUS KAI ELAMBANON PNEUMA hAGION.
ACTS 8:19 LEGWN• DOTE KA)MOI THN EXOUSIAN TAUTHN hINA hWi EAN EPIQW TAS CEIRAS LAMBANHi PNEUMA hAGION.
I think I already know the answer to this question, since proper names are sufficiently definite even without an article, but why would the same author use an anarthrous construction as is seen above for PNEUMA hAGION, and then switch in the same writing to an articular construction as is seen below in Acts 10:47 and then switch back to an anarthrous construction in Acts 19:2? These are the only five instances that I can find of PNEUMA hAGION being used in Acts when it is used in conjunction with the verb LAMBANW. In all cases they are anarthrous except this one below.
ACTS 10:47 MHTI TO hUDWR DUNATAI KWLUSAI TIS TOU MH BAPTISQHNAI TOUTOUS, hOITINES TO PNEUMA TO hAGION ELABON hWS KAI hHMEIS;
ACTS 19:2 EIPEN TE PROS AUTOUS• EI PNEUMA hAGION ELABETE PISTEUSANTES; hOI DE PROS AUTON• ALL᾽ OUD᾽ EI PNEUMA hAGION ESTIN HKOUSAMEN.
Could it possibly be Luke wants to emphasize that the Holy Spirit that just fell on the Gentiles was one and the same Spirit that fell on the Jews at Pentecost, (possibly because of some prejudice), and that is why he uses an articular construction, or does everyone think there is absolutely no significance at all? Or, on the other hand, can it have any bearing on the partitive idea shown in the previous thread on Joel 3:1-2? In other words, in Luke’s mind can he be thinking we receive that which is substantially Spirit (i.e. some of the Spirit, as Carl Conrad suggested), and not that we receive *the* Spirit in his entirety?
Blue Harris
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