[B-Greek] 2 Peter 1:20 and context
Oun Kwon
kwonbbl at gmail.com
Thu May 27 00:50:40 EDT 2010
On Wed, May 26, 2010 at 1:31 PM, Yancy Smith <yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net> wrote:
> Yancy: This is not simply a matter of being stuck in the old KJV tradition!
> First, because the range of meaning, suggested in Liddell-Scott, while including "release" would be quite odd with prophecy.
<clipped> I am one. I am inclined to accept L-S-J's classification of
ἐπίλυσις as "explanation," since that is the connotation one expects
with "prophecy." A perusal of the instances of EPILUSIS in the Greek
corpus of literature will confirm this thought.
> L-S-J say:
<clipped>
>
> So, while BDAG give a "basic meaning" of 'a setting free from something,' the meaning they prefer is clearly stated:
>
> In ἰδία ἐπίλυσις 2 Pt 1:20 one’s own private interpretation is contrasted with the meaning intended by the author himself or with the interpretation of another person who is authorized or competent (s. ἐπίλυσις and WWeeda, NThSt 2, 1919, 129–35)
>
> Yancy
>
For me, with such rendering it is hard to see what the text is trying
to say. It begs a question of 'interpretation of what?'.
I believe it's about genesis of prophetic words spoken out (such as
the one in v. 19) in harmony with v. 21, not about something of
prophetic words having been received.
I would read the text
v. 20b PASA PROFHTEIA GRAFHS IDIAS EPILUSEWS OU GINETAI
as "none of scriptural prophecies springs from one’s own
[understanding of the truth and] unraveling [of the reality]."
Addition of phrases in brackets is my attempt to read the meaning of
EPILUSIS in the context.
Please let me corrected if I'm found on a wrong track,
Oun Kwon.
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