[B-Greek] 2 Peter 1:20 and context

yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net
Sat May 29 14:20:12 EDT 2010


As with many cruci interpretum, as Carl says, more than one reading is equally probable. I am inclined to the possibility is that Οὐ γὰρ σεσοφισμένοις μύθοις OU GAR SESOFISMENOIS MUQOIS opens up a contrast frame in which charlatans and those who speak for God are implicitly contrasted. The first person "we language" (v. 16, 18) begins a contrast between "we" and "they" that runs through chapters 1-2 between true apostles/prophets and false prophets, who are explicitly introduced in 2:1. Though 2Peter does not mention prophets explicitly at all until v. 21 φερόμενοι ... ἄνθρωποι FEROMENOI ... ANQRWPOI, prophets, who are inherently considered trust worthy, are exemplified in those who "became eyewitnesses" γενηθέντες ... ἐπόπται EGENHQENTES ... OPOPTAI experience of Peter, the apostles, and Christ. The words spoken by God, which quote prophetic texts (ὁ υἱός μου ὁ ἀγαπητός μου hO hUIOS MOU AGAPHTOS MOU and οὗτός ἐστιν εἰς ὃν ἐγὼ εὐδόκησα hOUTOS ESTIN EIS hON EGW EUDOKHSA) of the OT (Ps 2, Is 42), are also contrasted with those who speak σεσοφισμένοις μύθοις ESOFISMENOIS MUQOIS

ἐγνωρίσαμεν ὑμῖν  leads to the description of a theophany in which Jesus was glorified, i.e. the transfiguration. There a prophetic experience took place in which a voice was heard, a recurrent prophetic experience, παρὰ θεοῦ πατρὸς τιμὴν καὶ δόξαν φωνῆς ἐνεχθείσης αὐτῷ PARA QEOU PATROS TIMHN KAI DOXAN FWNHS ENECQEISHS AUTWi  The word "φέρω, FERW" used 4 times, provides an interesting point of coherence in the entire passage. In each case it refers to prophetic experience:
φωνῆς ἐνεχθείσης αὐτῷ FWNHW ENECQEISHS AUTWi
ταύτην τὴν φωνὴν ἡμεῖς ἠκούσαμεν ἐξ οὐρανοῦ ἐνεχθεῖσαν TAUTHN THN FWNHN hHMEIS HKOUSAMEN EX OURANOU ENEXQEISAN
οὐ γὰρ θελήματι ἀνθρώπου ἠνέχθη προφητεία OU GAR QELHMATI ANQRWPOU HNECQH PROFHTEIA
ὑπὸ πνεύματος ἁγίου φερόμενοι ἐλάλησαν ἀπὸ θεοῦ ἄνθρωποι hUPO PNEUMATOS hAGIOU FEROMENOI ELALHSAN APO QEOU ANQRWPOI

The prophetic texts about Jesus are confirmed by the theophany. It is the prophetic word made βεβαιότερον. The words of God, then, are an authoritative and real interpretation of the prophetic texts. This is a further contrast with ἰδίας ἐπιλύσεως IDIAS EPILUSEWS. So the interpretation of prophetic texts and the prophetic experience of the apostles contrasts with a mere "private interpretation." οὐ γίνεται is copulative, but ablative of source, as Roberson avers, is not really the idea, rather the genetive would function as a simples specifying genitive, a way of characterizing the prophecy. We might translate, "should not be interpreted however anyone might wish." The GAR clause tells why this is true, because, since the prophecy did not ever come about by the will of a human being, οὐ γὰρ θελήματι ἀνθρώπου ἠνέχθη προφητεία ποτέ OU GAR QELHMATI ANQRWPOU HNECQH PROFHTEI POTE, etc, it should not be interpreted however a human being wishes to interpret it.

Chapter 3 shows that the matter of the interpretation of prophetic messages about the end of the world is at the heart of the debate within the church. The acceptance of Jesus as the beloved Son implies trust in the message about the eventual destruction of the world and new heaven and earth.

Yancy Smith, PhD
yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net
Y.W.Smith at tcu.edu
yancy at wbtc.com
5636 Wedgworth Road
Fort Worth, TX 76133
817-361-7565






On May 29, 2010, at 6:01 AM, Elizabeth Kline wrote:

> 
> On May 28, 2010, at 11:08 PM, Iver Larsen wrote:
> 
>> I agree that hIDIAS grammatically connects to PROFHTEIA, but as soon as the 
>> writer has penned PROFHTEIA, he has opened what Hoyle would call a prophetic 
>> scenario, and this implies the existence of a prophet. Prophecies need to be put 
>> into words by a prophet ...
> 
> ... absolutely right. Took the words right out of my mouth. When the scenario was opened a prophet becomes active in the discourse without needing to be mentioned explicitly. 
> 
> Elizabeth Kline
> 
> 
> 
> 
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