[B-Greek] 2 Thess 1.5,6 What is the ENDEIGMA

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Wed Mar 9 08:15:40 EST 2011


I am inclined to say that it is τῆς ὑπομονῆς καὶ πίστεως THS hUPOMONHS KAI 
PISTEWS though I must confess that this is not on the basis of any 
syntactical rationale.   As a noun ἔνδειγμα cannot agree in gender with 
whatever is judged to be its referent -- it simply is what it has always 
been.  Although the NRSV (and the NET as well) translates with a demonstrative, 
it is not present in the original text.  Had a demonstrative been present, it 
might have shed some light on the matter -- then again, it might not. The result 
of the δικαίας κρίσεως DIKAIAS KRISEWS of God of which the referent is a 
sign is that they are considered worthy of the Kingdom of God.  The fact that IT 
(the referent) is a sign of God's righteous judgment that they be considered 
worthy of the Kingdom of God seems to point in the direction of considering it 
to be the two items mentioned previously.  


 george
gfsomsel 


… search for truth, hear truth, 
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, 
defend the truth till death.


- Jan Hus
_________ 




________________________________
From: Richard Smith <rbs58 at comcast.net>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Wed, March 9, 2011 5:32:39 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] 2 Thess 1.5,6 What is the ENDEIGMA




2 Thess 1.5-6 

ENDEIGMA THD DIKAIAS KRISEWS TOU QEOU EIS TO KATAXIWQHNAI hUMAS THS BASILEAS TOU 
QEOU, hUPER hHS KAI PASCETE, (6) EIPER DIKAION PARA QEWi ANTAPODOUNAI. 




5 ἔνδειγμα τῆς δικαίας κρίσεως τοῦ θεοῦ, εἰς τὸ καταξιωθῆναι ὑμᾶς τῆς βασιλείας 
τοῦ θεοῦ, ὑπὲρ ἧς καὶ πάσχετε, 6 εἴπερ δίκαιον παρὰ θεῷ ἀνταποδοῦναι τοῖς 
θλίβουσιν ὑμᾶς θλῖψιν 7 καὶ ὑμῖν τοῖς θλιβομένοις ἄνεσιν μεθ' ἡμῶν ἐν τῇ 
ἀποκαλύψει τοῦ κυρίου Ἰησοῦ 




I am trying to connect the dots. What is the ENDEIGMA - the suffering or the 
steadfastness in faith and love? Is it evidence of the righteous judgement of 
God that they are suffering? Or has God made a good choice to count they worthy 
because they are so good at enduring affliction? 




NRSV seems to me to stretch a little its translation, although most 
often with such questions I eventually come around to agree with the NRSV 
rendering. 




Should EIS TO KATAXIWQHNAI be understood to mean "is intended to make you 
worthy," as in the NRSV? Maybe it means that the steadfastness in faith through 
their struggles is evidence that God was right to judge them worthy. 




Verse 6 EIPER - since indeed or if indeed? 



I think it makes most sense for me to read "If indeed it is just according to 
God to repay with affliction to those who afflict, and to repay with rest to 
those who are afflicted,  (then) this (your affliction) is evidence of God's 
righteous judgement to account you worthy of the kingdom."  (The underlying 
given assumption is that of course it is according to God to repay in such a 
way.) 




DIKAION PARA QEWi - the NRSV has "just of God", but maybe it should be "just 
according to God, just in God's will"? 




Any help with these verses is appreciated. 



Thanks, 



Richard Smith
---
B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek
B-Greek mailing list
B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek



      


More information about the B-Greek mailing list