[B-Greek] 2 Thess 1.5,6 What is the ENDEIGMA
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Wed Mar 9 08:15:40 EST 2011
I am inclined to say that it is τῆς ὑπομονῆς καὶ πίστεως THS hUPOMONHS KAI
PISTEWS though I must confess that this is not on the basis of any
syntactical rationale. As a noun ἔνδειγμα cannot agree in gender with
whatever is judged to be its referent -- it simply is what it has always
been. Although the NRSV (and the NET as well) translates with a demonstrative,
it is not present in the original text. Had a demonstrative been present, it
might have shed some light on the matter -- then again, it might not. The result
of the δικαίας κρίσεως DIKAIAS KRISEWS of God of which the referent is a
sign is that they are considered worthy of the Kingdom of God. The fact that IT
(the referent) is a sign of God's righteous judgment that they be considered
worthy of the Kingdom of God seems to point in the direction of considering it
to be the two items mentioned previously.
george
gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth,
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth,
defend the truth till death.
- Jan Hus
_________
________________________________
From: Richard Smith <rbs58 at comcast.net>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Wed, March 9, 2011 5:32:39 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] 2 Thess 1.5,6 What is the ENDEIGMA
2 Thess 1.5-6
ENDEIGMA THD DIKAIAS KRISEWS TOU QEOU EIS TO KATAXIWQHNAI hUMAS THS BASILEAS TOU
QEOU, hUPER hHS KAI PASCETE, (6) EIPER DIKAION PARA QEWi ANTAPODOUNAI.
5 ἔνδειγμα τῆς δικαίας κρίσεως τοῦ θεοῦ, εἰς τὸ καταξιωθῆναι ὑμᾶς τῆς βασιλείας
τοῦ θεοῦ, ὑπὲρ ἧς καὶ πάσχετε, 6 εἴπερ δίκαιον παρὰ θεῷ ἀνταποδοῦναι τοῖς
θλίβουσιν ὑμᾶς θλῖψιν 7 καὶ ὑμῖν τοῖς θλιβομένοις ἄνεσιν μεθ' ἡμῶν ἐν τῇ
ἀποκαλύψει τοῦ κυρίου Ἰησοῦ
I am trying to connect the dots. What is the ENDEIGMA - the suffering or the
steadfastness in faith and love? Is it evidence of the righteous judgement of
God that they are suffering? Or has God made a good choice to count they worthy
because they are so good at enduring affliction?
NRSV seems to me to stretch a little its translation, although most
often with such questions I eventually come around to agree with the NRSV
rendering.
Should EIS TO KATAXIWQHNAI be understood to mean "is intended to make you
worthy," as in the NRSV? Maybe it means that the steadfastness in faith through
their struggles is evidence that God was right to judge them worthy.
Verse 6 EIPER - since indeed or if indeed?
I think it makes most sense for me to read "If indeed it is just according to
God to repay with affliction to those who afflict, and to repay with rest to
those who are afflicted, (then) this (your affliction) is evidence of God's
righteous judgement to account you worthy of the kingdom." (The underlying
given assumption is that of course it is according to God to repay in such a
way.)
DIKAION PARA QEWi - the NRSV has "just of God", but maybe it should be "just
according to God, just in God's will"?
Any help with these verses is appreciated.
Thanks,
Richard Smith
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