[B-Greek] What is the Sense of the Imperfect of EIMI in Luke 7:37
Billy Shaw
billyspdfs at yahoo.com
Tue Mar 29 11:46:22 EDT 2011
I am curious as to the intended sense of the imperfect of EIMI in Luke 7:37.
Perhaps it's obvious, and I apologize if that's the case. I'm just wondering
whether it is more "accurate" to render - "a woman who had been a sinner" versus
"a woman who was a sinner [at the time of her crashing Simon's party]"
Perhaps Simon's own ESTIN in verse 39 sheds light?
My gut is leaning toward Wallace's category - "Imperfect Retained in Indirect
Discourse." Using among others John 9:18 as an example. Says Wallace, "In
indirect discourse, we usually push the tense back 'one slot' from what it would
have been in direct discourse...that is, we render a simple past as a past
perfect, a present as a past...." Not sure the textual issue of TIS HN vs.
hHTIS HN, noted by Marshall in NIGTC affects the question, but it might?
As fascinating as it is, I am not asking the theological question about whether
hAMARTWLOS applies post-"conversion."
For what it's worth, the NIV smooths it out "a woman who had lived a sinful
life."
In humble gratitude,
Billy
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