[b-greek] antecedents

From: Rick H Duggin (rduggin@juno.com)
Date: Mon Jul 17 2000 - 13:49:04 EDT


 Jeremiah 39:4 (LXX) warns that Zedekiah will not
be saved out of the hand of the Chaldeans,
hOTI PARADOSEI PARADOQHSETAI EIS CEIRAS
BASILEWS BABULWNOS, KAI LALHSEI STOMA
AUTOU PROS STOMA AUTOU, KAI hOI OFQALMOI
AUTOU TOUS OFQALMOUS AUTOU OYONTAI.

As I was reading this passage, I was a little uncertain
about the pronoun/antecedent connection. I think the
"he" in LALHSEI refers to Nebuchadnezzar, not to
Zedekiah. Is this right?

Assuming this to be correct, then the first STOMA AUTOU
must surely refer to Nebuchadnezzar, and the second must
refer to Zedekiah. Right again?

Finally, assuming these things to be correct, I would think
that the OFQALMOI AUTOU refers to Nebuchadnezzar,
while the OFQALMOUS AUTOU refers to Zedekiah.

Question: In translating/interpreting/connecting pronouns
and their antecedents, is there a guideline which applies in
most cases? (E.g., a pronoun usually agrees with its nearest
antecedent.) Wallace says, "What might be the nearest antecedent
contextually might not be the nearest antecedent in the author's mind"
(Gk. Grammar Beyond Basics, p.326, discussing demonstratives).
Does this mean that the issue rests merely upon the context of
the passage, as my suggestions above indicate? Can someone
PROVE that my explanations above are right or wrong, or is it
a matter of judgment and common sense?

Thanks for your comments.

Rick Duggin
Murfreesboro, TN 37129
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