From: Robert L. Garringer (1baptist@nemr.net)
Date: Thu Aug 24 2000 - 09:50:18 EDT
Is there any possibility that the participle in the latter part of Mt 5:32
and 19:9 could indicate that the woman is the one who had initiated
divorce? If so the thought would parallel Mk 10:12 which simply repeats for
the woman the prohibition that had been stated for the man in the previous
verse.
Pastor Robert L. Garringer
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