From: yochanan bitan-buth (ButhFam@compuserve.com)
Date: Fri Nov 17 2000 - 10:36:45 EST
>If one accepts Porter's proposition that Hellenistic
>Greek was Aspectual ONLY, then your logical conclusion
>above would indeed have to be the case. As I indicated
>earlier, Aristotle did indeed define his verbal system
>as including a temporal (CRONOS) quality. And Modern
>Greek is without dispute aspectual/temporal or
>temporal/aspectual.
Yes, I think that Porter is wrong in making an absolute claim.
So it would be wrong to talk about this language
including tense, discarding it, and then reinstating it.
ERRWQE
Randall Buth
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