From: Harold R. Holmyard III (hholmyard@ont.com)
Date: Fri Jan 12 2001 - 07:53:44 EST
Dear Jim,
I do not think that they are in apposition. I think that the adjective
modifies the noun. This is also the way that Bible translations have it, at
least the ones with which I am familiar.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard>
I am just beginning my Syntax studies in Greek and have a simple question
about 1 Pet 1:1. Are the words EKLEKTOIS PAREPIDDHMOIS in apposition?.
I am understanding EKLEKTOIS to be an adjective and PAREPIDHMOIS to be a
noun, but the modification seems unnecessary and leads to questions about
how PARAPIDHMOIS could be related to the rest of the clause- especially
hAMATOS. The second part of my question is probably not as simple: If
these words are in apposition, what is the relationship of them to KATA
PROGNWSIN, etc? How do I understand and describe this relationship? Are
both datives related to/dependent on (what would be the word?) KATA
PROGNWSIN QEOU? I am beginning to use Porter and Wallace and if there
are sections that will supplement your answers please direct me to them.
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