From: Harold R. Holmyard III (hholmyard@ont.com)
Date: Sat Jan 20 2001 - 15:16:56 EST
Dear Dagoberto,
About Matt 18:24 you ask:
>How can I describe the use of the genitive pronoun "autos" here?
>Many Translations render it "he", while others do not.
>While in the second pronoun it is translated "man", "one".
It refers to the king in both occurrences:
And when *he* began to settle accounts, there was brought to *him* one
debtor of ten thousand talents.
The first time it is the subject of an infinitive in a genitive absolute.
Then it is an indirect object.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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