From: Mark Wilson (emory2oo2@hotmail.com)
Date: Tue Jan 23 2001 - 21:29:44 EST
<x-flowed>
John 8
21b
KAI EN THi hAMARTIA hUMWN APOQANEISQE
24a
EIPON OUN hUMIN hOTI APOQANEISQE EN TAIS hAMARTIAIS hUMWN
Concerning hAMARTIA and hAMARTIAIS (both with plural pronoun):
This switch from the singular hAMARTIA to the plural seems awkward
to me, especially since 24 presents itself as a "quote" (hOTI) of verse 21.
On a grammatical or semantical level, what justifies this change in number?
I know the Greeks were relatively free in choosing word order, but is the
change from singular to plural in any way related to the reversal of
word order here? (APOQANEISQE is placed "before" prep. phrase in 24)
Thank you,
Mark Wilson
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