[b-greek] RE: James 1:13 from a new perspective

From: dixonps@juno.com
Date: Fri Jan 26 2001 - 12:03:13 EST


On Fri, 26 Jan 2001 10:00:44 +0100 "Iver Larsen"
<alice-iver_larsen@wycliffe.org> writes:
> >
> > MHDEIS PEIRAZOMENOS LEGETW hOTI APO TOU QEOU PEIRAZOMAI
> > hO GAR QEOS APEIRASTOS ESTI KAKWN
> > PEIRAZEI DE AUTOS OUDENA
> >
> > James 1:13
> >
> I believe the difference between testing and temptation is the
> motive behind it
> and the intended result. Temptation has an evil motive (therefore
> KAKWN) and is
> intended to lead to fall. God is above such evil things (APEIRASTOS
> KAKWN seems
> awkward, admitted.) Testing has a good motive and leads to
> strengthening and
> victory, if one stands the test. And surely, God tests people. He
> even may use
> the Tempter to do so. The same action or incident can be a testing
> or a
> temptation depending on how the person reacts to it.

Well put, Iver. God did test Abraham (EPEIRAZEN, Gen 22:1), yet God does
not tempt anyone (PEIRAZEI DE AUTOS OUDENA, Js 1:13). Also, as we have
seen quite exhaustively, not too long ago on this list, we are to pray:
lead us not EIS PEIRASMON (Mt 6:13). (Some of us were fearing it would
get back to this, but rightly so).

So, if God does not tempt us to evil, but does test us in order to prove
us, then to which does Mt 6:13 refer? Is it a request that God not tempt
us to evil, which the second half of the verse seems to suggest? Is it a
request that God not test us to prove us? Is it a request that God not
allow us to tempt Him, as the Israelites did repeatedly in the OT?

I have always thought that Mt 6:13 has to be taken in its whole,
indicating our complete dependence upon God for deliverance from evil,
the flip side being that if God did not deliver us from evil, then the
only alternative (according to the petition) is that He would lead us
into temptation (to evil). These seem to be the only two options viewed
by the petitioner.

The problem is we find it abhorent thinking God would lead us into evil,
and Js 1:13 seems to contradict it. If so, then we raise the question,
why would we even pray like this - if God would never do it, anyhow. The
question itself indicates a presupposition regarding prayer, that if God
would never do something, then we shouldn't ask Him not to do it, or that
if God is necessarily going to do something, then we shouldn't pray it.

This presupposition is countered in the Lord's Prayer earlier, if we
believe, for instance, that God's kingdom will come and His will is going
to be done. If so, then why bother to pray them? Probably as an
ordained means to an ordained end. Probably also as a way of getting our
attention to an appreciation of what God is doing and getting us plugged
into His program, including a recognition of our dependency upon Him for
deliverance from evil in its totality.

Paul Dixon

---
B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [jwrobie@mindspring.com]
To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu
To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu


This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Mon Feb 11 2002 - 18:40:16 EST