From: Keith Thompson (keitht@kneptune.demon.co.uk)
Date: Mon Mar 26 2001 - 10:35:06 EST
Hi!
Can I assume from the lack of responses that people agree with my view
that hHTIS ESTIN does not refer to TAIS QLIYESIN? I realise that the
grammar in the New Testament is not always perfect, for example I'm
translating the book of James and I came across James 3:4
(IDOU), KAI TA PLOIA ... METAGETAI hUPO ELACISTOU PHDALIOU ...
where singular METAGETAI refers to plural PLOIA. But do people reckon
that most translations have got it wrong at Ephesians 3:13? I notice the
AV has 'which is' and the RV has 'which are', is there perhaps a
difference in the texts they used?
Keith (Manchester, UK)
Email: keitht@kneptune.demon.co.uk
-- Keith Thompson--- B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [jwrobie@mindspring.com] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Mon Feb 11 2002 - 18:40:23 EST