[b-greek] Re: the use of future

From: Ben Crick (ben.crick@argonet.co.uk)
Date: Fri Apr 06 2001 - 13:28:24 EDT


On Fri 6 Apr 2001 (01:33:29 +0200), storch@storchsites.de wrote:
> in jesus quotation of the commandments he uses very frequently the 2nd
> person singular future indicative (i.e.lk 10:27,mat 22:39). why is this
> form always translated as an imperative?
> "Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself (mat 22:39)". would it not be
> more exactly to translate: "you will..."?
> in about 10 german versions i just found one (walter jens) who
> translates not an imperative but "normal future".
> is the futureform normally used as an imperative?

 The answer is probably to be found in the original Hebrew form of the Ten
 Words. In Exodus 20:2-17 most of the "commands" are couched in the Qal
 Imperfect 2nd person singular, usually translated in the LXX by the Future.
 There is a Hebrew Imperative, but it is not used in the Ten Words; but with
 one exception: "Honour thy father and thy mother": which is Pi`el Imperative.

 The Lord's Summary of the Law in Matthew 22:37-40 consists of two citations
 from the OT: Deuteronomy 6:4-5 (similar to LXX) and Leviticus 19:18 (same as
 LXX). These both use the 2nd person singular Future. In Hebrew Deuteronomy 6:5
 uses the Qal Imperfect 2nd sing; and Leviticus 19:18 uses the 2nd sing Qal
 Perfect with Waw Consecutiva (roughly equivalent to the Imperfect).

 Is the future form normally used as imperative? - it depends who is talking!
 If your boss says "You will go back to your office and rewrite this letter",
 then you comply!

 ERRWSQE
 Ben

-- 
 Revd Ben Crick, BA CF
 <ben.crick@argonet.co.uk>
 232 Canterbury Road, Birchington, Kent, CT7 9TD (UK)
 http://www.cnetwork.co.uk/crick.htm

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