[b-greek] Re: present active participle in Hebr. 6:6

From: dixonps@juno.com
Date: Tue May 01 2001 - 18:55:17 EDT


On Tue, 1 May 2001 12:25:07 -0700 (PDT) Michael Markey
<mike_mikie@yahoo.com> writes:
>
> In Robertson's Word Pictures of the New Testament, he
> says ANASTRAUROUNTAS and PARADEIGMATIZONTAS are both
> present active participles. Is that correct? What
> does that mean in context of this verse? Does that
> indicate the time of the action?

No, it does not indicate the time of the action. These participles are
probably causal and should be taken as indicating why it is impossible to
renew them to repentance - because, if it were possible to renew them to
repentance, then it would also include a crucifying to themselves the Son
of God and a putting Him to open shame. But, it is impossible for Christ
to be crucified again. Therefore, it is impossible to renew them to
repentance. Clearcut logical implication recognized and spelled out by
the author.

This is explained (GAR) in verses 7-8. The one who has partaken of the
spiritual blessings, but falls away is like the ground which receives the
rain, but produces thorns and thistles. It is too late for that ground.
It is close to being cursed and is eventually burned.

Hence, the present tense participles of v. 6 probably indicates action
simultaneous with the action of the main verb which would be the
immediately preceding present infinitive ANAKAINIZEIN.

Paul Dixon

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