[b-greek] Re: present active participle in Hebr. 6:6

From: dixonps@juno.com
Date: Sat May 05 2001 - 10:36:21 EDT


On Thu, 03 May 2001 20:54:19 +0300 Kimmo Huovila
<kimmo.huovila@helsinki.fi> writes:
> dixonps@juno.com wrote:
>
> > No, it does not indicate the time of the action. These
> > articiples are probably causal and should be taken
> > as indicating why it is impossible to renew them to
> > repentance - because, if it were possible to renew
> > them to repentance, then it would also include a
> > crucifying to themselves the Son of God and a putting
> > Him to open shame. But, it is impossible for Christ
> > to be crucified again. Therefore, it is impossible to
> > renew them to repentance. Clearcut logical implication
> > recognized and spelled out by the author.
>
> Does the participle ever have this sense? This is no normal causal
> participle, in which case both propositions (the matrix clause and
> the participial clause) are both true (simultaneously). In other words,

> a normal causal participle would say that it is not possible to renew
> them because 'they do X', not that because 'it would require X'. Very
> different semantics, IMHO.

That is an interesting thought. I wonder what a similar construction
(ADUNATON + present infinitive + present [causal] participle) would
yield. But, there really is no problem here. The whole thing is
hypothetical anyhow. The ADUNATON tells us it is actually an impossible
situation that follows, as the author proves it by assuming it was
possible to renew such (who had fallen away) to repentance, then showing
the necessary consequent (a recrucifying of the Son of God) which is
impossible.

So, he is really saying, to use your lingo above, when 'they do Y,' 'they
do X.' But, X is not possible; therefore, neither is Y.

Paul Dixon

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