From: Rick Stamp (rickstamp@gmx.net)
Date: Wed Jun 27 2001 - 00:35:03 EDT
> I understand that in Colossians 1:16 en autw may be understood as the
> agent through which the action of creation is accomplished. This raises a
> couple of questions for me. First, when the action is performed through
> an intelligent being, is the one doing the action necessarily different
> from the agent?
> Thank you for your help.
> Michael Abernathy
> mabernat@cub.kcnet.org
Michael,
You might consider the instrumental dative at Hebrew 1:1 where the
Father first speaks by the prophets and then through His Son.
Regards,
Rick Stamp
-- ----------------- Rick Stamp rickstamp@gmx.netSent through GMX FreeMail - http://www.gmx.net
> <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <HTML><HEAD> <META http-equiv=Content-Type content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"> <META content="MSHTML 5.50.4522.1800" name=GENERATOR> <STYLE></STYLE> </HEAD> <BODY bgColor=#ffffff> <DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>I understand that in Colossians 1:16 en autw may be understood as the agent through which the action of creation is accomplished. This raises a couple of questions for me. First, when the action is performed through an intelligent being, is the one doing the action necessarily different from the agent?</FONT></DIV> <DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>Second, in this case, the difference between instrumentality and agency sounds rather narrow. I know that many of the discussions on this list imply a very exact use of the language. My question then, is this, "How precisely did the average Greek speaker use the language?" I expect to find rather fine distinctions in Plato. Should I expect the same level of precision in Paul?</FONT></DIV> <DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>Thank you for your help.</FONT></DIV> <DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>Michael Abernathy</FONT></DIV> <DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2><A href="mailto:mabernat@cub.kcnet.org">mabernat@cub.kcnet.org</A></FONT></DIV> <DIV> </DIV> ---<BR> B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
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