From: dixonps@juno.com
Date: Sat Jul 14 2001 - 18:19:22 EDT
Ted:
While the absence of a definite article does not imply the noun is not
definite, its presence does point us to a particular object. Does a
definite article ever denote anything but definiteness?
I have no idea why the NIV renders it "a mountain." Most translations do
translate the definite article in Mt 5:1 as "the."
Paul Dixon
On Sat, 14 Jul 2001 14:55:50 -0400 "Ted Mann" <theomann@earthlink.net>
writes:
> I know that the absence of an article in Greek does not necessarily
> call for
> the use of the indefinite article in translation. However, are
> there
> occasions when it is reasonable (or at least acceptable) to use
> either the
> definite or indefinite articles in translation when the Greek has
> the
> definite article? For example, in Mt. 5:1, I notice that the NIV
> translates
> ANEBH EIS TO OROS as "..he went up on a mountainside.." Does this
> accurately reflect the Greek, or would the readers of the gospel
> have
> understood this to be "THE mountainside ("mountain," "hill," etc.)"?
>
> Many thanks.
>
> Ted
> Dr. Theodore H. Mann
> theomann@earthlink.net
> http://home.earthlink.net/~theomann
>
>
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Dr. Paul S. Dixon, Pastor
Evangelical Free Church
Iowa Falls, IA
http://members.aol.com/dixonps
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