From: George Athas (gathas@ausisp.com)
Date: Sat Aug 25 2001 - 00:33:18 EDT
Two questions:
(1) Do you think there is any significance in the fact that SUGKLHRONOMOIS is masculine?
Is this referring to the husbands rather than the wives?
(2) What is the significance of the KAI before SUGKLHRONOMOIS? Is Peter here arguing that
husbands treat their wives 'even' as if they were co-heirs, despite the wives being
unbelievers? Or, if the wives are believers, what could be deduced about how Peter wants
husbands to treat unbelieving wives?
Best regards,
GEORGE ATHAS
(Sydney, Australia)
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