From: Steven R. Lo Vullo (doulos@appleisp.net)
Date: Wed Sep 05 2001 - 21:57:52 EDT
on 9/5/01 8:21 PM, KWmercy@aol.com at KWmercy@aol.com wrote:
> Why isn't there a "past" tense of ginwskw in scripture?
> Also, there is eidow in scripture. Is that a substantive of eidw or of
> something else?
Hi Kristi:
GINWSKW is represented by the full range of tenses in the NT. As for EIDOW,
are you sure you have spelled it correctly? I couldn't find that particular
lemma in the NT (although I did find EIDEW ["to know"] used once in the
LXX).
--Steve Lo Vullo Madison, WI
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