From: jldrick@juno.com
Date: Mon Oct 08 2001 - 22:09:53 EDT
Folks,
While we are discussing Romans 3: 9,
"IOUDAIOUS TE KAI hELLHNAS," may I ask to what
does PANTAS refer?
Does it mean all of both groups?
Does it mean all hELLHNAS, remembering
that there were many Gentile nations, but only one
Jewish nation?
Since IOUDAIOUS is plural, is it better to
see this and hELLHNAS as applying to individuals
and not nations?
Would it be a better translation to render
this as, "Jews and all Gentiles are under sin," or
as, "Jews and Gentiles are all under sin?"
Jim Drickamer
Baton Rouge, La.
--- B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [jwrobie@mindspring.com] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Mon Feb 11 2002 - 18:40:43 EST