[b-greek] Re: In 1 Cor 14:26-33 men are meant

From: Mike Sangrey (msangrey@BlueFeltHat.org)
Date: Tue Nov 06 2001 - 12:51:02 EST


On Tue, 2001-11-06 at 08:27, Dr. Theodore H. Mann wrote:

> >
> >It seems to me the context of 1 Cor:14:34,35 may in fact rule out women in
> >vs. 26-33. It reads to me as though Paul is contrasting the roles of men
> >and women in the church. That is, when the church assembles, the men bring
> >psalms, teachings, etc., the (male) prophets speak, etc., but women, by
> >contrast (v.34), are to remain silent. Verse 37 then returns to the role of
> >men.
> >

FWIW: In everyone's mix of explanations which must be offered in order
to fit this whole text together and thus form a cohesive argument, one
must explain the strong flip in emotion from 14:35 to 36. To me, vs 36
reads like a strong reaction against a statement made by the
Corinthians. If I assume Paul is saying, "in your meetings, men should
do this, women should do that," I'm left with the feeling that 36 comes
out of nowhere. To get the effect read 26-35 in a calm voice out loud
and then, with an angry voice, read 36-38. Notice how it just doesn't
flow. And also note that the emotion really is there (at least I think
it is) in the text itself.

To that end, I currently take 33b-35 as a quote from the letter from
Corinth to Paul. Paul reacts to that statement in 36-38. And this is
consistent with taking the masculines in 26-33a as generic as Carlton
Winbery suggests.

There's many issues here. I am only seeking to help people make an
informed evaluation though my information may be wrong. YMMV (Your
Mileage May Vary).

-- 
Mike Sangrey
msangrey@BlueFeltHat.org
Landisburg, Pa.
                        "The first one last wins."
            "A net of highly cohesive details reveals the truth."

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