[b-greek] Re: Perfect tense in 1 Cor 7:15

From: Denny A Diehl (dd-1@juno.com)
Date: Fri Dec 07 2001 - 10:42:48 EST


Steven,

> > The perfect tense is used in 1 Cor 7:15 DEDOULWTAI.
> > I think I understand the use of the perfect tense that it
> > is completed action based on past action. However, what
> > is puzzling to me is the OU "not under bondage". How does
> > OU effect the force of the perfect tense? If the bond under
> > consideration is the marriage bond, then would OU mean
> > that there never was a marriage bond (which would mean
> > that it couldn't be the marriage bond)? Or would the past
> > action under consideration be the desertion of the unbeliever
> > thus the completed action is a result of the desertion? Are
> > there other examples of OU with the perfect tense to compare?
> > I'm open for suggestions!

> I thought this same question was asked just a few weeks ago, with a
> good reply from Carl Conrad.

I didn't realize that it went out to b-greek. However, my question
is if OU with the perfect makes it not only "not under bondage" but
also follows the force of the perfect tense also to make it something
like "and never has been under bondage"? Is that a valid conclusion,
or is it too much? Thanks for any input!

Denny

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