From: Stephen Carlson (scc@reston.icl.com)
Date: Tue Jan 23 1996 - 10:35:14 EST
Rick Strelan wrote:
> Would anyone care to answer a basic question: why do verb tenses change so
> easily in a narrative? For example (among many) in the parable of Matt
> 13:24-30, the servants and the master have a conversation which is
> introduced by verbs in the aorist (eipon and ephe, vv27-28) but then the
> conversation continues introduced by verbns of speaking in the present
> tense (legousin and phesi), Is the present tense here meant to imply an
> on-going or repeated conversation,a stance being taken?
We've had this question before (I know, because I have asked a similar
question), and the basic answer seems to be that shifting to the present
tense for verbs of speaking serves to highlight what is being said. In
other words, it is used to emphasize or focus the attention on a particular
statement. There are those on this list who know the topic better than I,
so I may missing some important nuances.
Stephen Carlson
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