From: BibAnsMan@aol.com
Date: Fri May 10 1996 - 17:08:01 EDT
In a message dated 96-05-10 11:29:27 EDT, holmic@bethel.edu (Michael Holmes)
writes:
>Don here raises the matter of translation of them, and I am
>curious to learn what list members would do in a case like Luke/Mat 4:3, "if
>you are the son of God ...". In my experience, virtually every English-only
>reader thinks that the tempter is challenging the *identity* of Jesus,
>whereas it seems almost certain that what is being challenged is his
>*character
Again here I believe as has already been stated by another that this is an
assumption of truth primarily for the sake of an argument. It could be
understood as follows: "If you are the Son of God [as you say you are]
then...." The protasis ("if" clause) is set up in order to force one to
agree with the apodasis ("then" clause). If one translates the "if" as
"since," it does not carry the force of the conditionality. The condition is
the proof or substantiation that He is indeed the Son of Man. Even though
the speaker knows this, he is "arguing" for the physiological substantiation
of it.
Jim McGuire
Professor of Greek
Logos Bible Institute
13248 Roscoe Blvd.
Sun Valley, CA 91352
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