From: Mike Phillips (mphilli3@mail.tds.net)
Date: Wed Jul 10 1996 - 15:13:26 EDT
I'm working in John 14 and have a few 'novice' questions, if anyone
would care to stoop in an accomodating fashion <g>. In v. 15, to begin with, I
find <greek>TAS ENTOLAS TAS EMAS</>, which I am rendering (for lack of a better
idea) simply as 'my commandments,' yet the structure differs markedly from v.
21, <greek>TAS ENTOLAS MOU</> which is so clearly 'my commandments,' that I
wonder what measure of ignorance is preventing me from gathering the
distinction (emphasis?). Is <greek> TAS EMAS</> something else (that I can't
locate) other than a pronoun in acc. case agreeing with <greek>TAS ENTOLAS</>?
Is it a bifurcate direct object (sorry, I don't know the technical term, but on
a diagram you would have two parallel direct objects, the commandments and 'the
ones of mine?' Ok, I have probably sufficiently addressed the points of my
confusion here.
How about spelling concerns: v. 27, <greek>DEILIATW</>. Where does
the TAU come from? BAG has (p. 173) <greek>DELIAW</> and specifically cites
this verse, but doesn't give the variant spelling. Archaic form? Different
dialect?
Also v. 31 (and here I fear I am just plain foolish for risking another query,
being fairly confident I have already exposed my ignorance suficiently) <greek>
POIW</>. Why would a pres. act. ind. 1st sing. form vary from the lexical form
<greek>POIEW</>?
------
Mike Phillips
Hebrew Union College - JIR
disclaimer: a grad student in process
A word is not a crystal, transparent and unchanging;
it is the skin of living thought and changes from day to day
as does the air around us. -- Oliver Wendell Holmes
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